Part VIII — Full-Length Mock Tests

Chapter 8: Mock Test 1 — RBI Assistant Mains Pattern (50 Representative MCQs)

This mock test provides a representative sample across all five Mains sections in equal proportional weighting (10 questions per section), condensed from the full 200-question pattern for focused practice. Suggested time limit: 35 minutes.

Section A: Reasoning Ability (10 Questions)

1. If A is B's father, B is C's sister, and C is D's mother, then A is D's:
   (a) Grandfather (b) Uncle (c) Great-grandfather (d) Father
2. A man walks 7 km west, then turns left and walks 24 km. How far is he from his starting point?
   (a) 24 km (b) 25 km (c) 26 km (d) 31 km
3. If in a code, RIVER is written as SJWFS (each letter shifted forward by 1), how is OCEAN written?
   (a) PDFBO (b) PDFOB (c) QDFBO (d) PDGBO
4. Given: P > Q ≥ R > S. Which of the following must be true?
   (a) P > S (b) S > P (c) Q < S (d) R > P
5. In the letter series D, H, M, S, ?, what is the next letter (gaps +4,+5,+6, next +7)?
   (a) Y (b) Z (c) X (d) W
6. Given: "All bankers are professionals. Some professionals are auditors." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
   (a) All bankers are auditors (b) Some professionals are bankers (c) No definite conclusion about bankers being auditors can be drawn from these two statements alone (d) No bankers are professionals
7. In a floor-based puzzle with 8 floors (ground = 1), a person living exactly in the middle floor between floors 3 and 7 lives on floor:
   (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
8. In order and ranking, a candidate ranks 22nd from the top in a group of 50. Their rank from the bottom is:
   (a) 27th (b) 28th (c) 29th (d) 30th
9. In the number series 5, 11, 23, 47, ?, what is the pattern (×2+1) and next term?
   (a) 93 (b) 94 (c) 95 (d) 96
10. Symbolic operation: If "&" means "add," "%" means "subtract," and "×" means "divide," what is the value of 20 & 4 % 6 × 2?
    (a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 12

Section B: Numerical Ability (10 Questions)

11. Simplify: 24 ÷ 4 + 6 × 3 − 5.
    (a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 25
12. A sum of ₹12,000 amounts to ₹15,600 in 3 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
    (a) 8% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12%
13. A trader sells an article at a 15% loss. If he had sold it for ₹120 more, he would have gained 5%. What is the cost price?
    (a) ₹500 (b) ₹550 (c) ₹600 (d) ₹650
14. The ratio of two numbers is 5:7. If their sum is 108, find the larger number.
    (a) 45 (b) 56 (c) 63 (d) 60
15. Find the compound interest on ₹15,000 at 20% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually.
    (a) ₹6000 (b) ₹6300 (c) ₹6600 (d) ₹6900
16. A and B together can complete a task in 12 days; B alone takes 20 days. In how many days can A alone complete it?
    (a) 25 days (b) 28 days (c) 30 days (d) 32 days
17. Two pipes fill a tank in 6 hours and 8 hours respectively. Working together, how long do they take to fill the tank?
    (a) 3 hours (b) 3.43 hours (c) 4 hours (d) 4.5 hours
18. In a table showing five years of a bank's NPA figures, if NPA fell from ₹500 crore to ₹400 crore, the percentage decrease is:
    (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 18%
19. Solve for x: 5(x − 2) = 3x + 4.
    (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
20. Find the area of a circle with radius 7 cm (use π = 22/7).
    (a) 144 sq cm (b) 154 sq cm (c) 164 sq cm (d) 174 sq cm

Section C: English Language (10 Questions)

21. Identify the error: "Each of the applicants have submitted their forms." The error is in:
    (a) "have" should be "has" (b) "applicants" should be "applicant" (c) "submitted" should be "submit" (d) No error
22. Choose the correct form: "If the bank ___ the loan, the business would have expanded."
    (a) approve (b) approves (c) had approved (d) approving
23. Fill in the blank: "The customer complained ___ poor service."
    (a) about (b) at (c) on (d) with
24. One-word substitution for "A statement that cannot be understood" is:
    (a) Incomprehensible (b) Incurable (c) Indelible (d) Inevitable
25. Choose the synonym of "Solvent" (as in "a solvent bank"):
    (a) Financially stable (b) Bankrupt (c) Indebted (d) Insolvent
26. Choose the antonym of "Liquidity":
    (a) Solvency (b) Illiquidity (c) Cash flow (d) Reserves
27. Identify the error: "The manager, along with his staff, were present at the meeting." The error is in:
    (a) "were" should be "was" (b) "along with" should be "along" (c) "staff" should be "staffs" (d) No error
28. Choose the correctly formed passive voice of "The RBI monitors inflation.":
    (a) Inflation is monitored by the RBI (b) Inflation monitors the RBI (c) The RBI is monitored by inflation (d) Inflation was monitoring the RBI
29. In a Cloze Test passage on banking reforms, the primary skill assessed is:
    (a) Only spelling accuracy (b) Vocabulary, grammar, and contextual comprehension together (c) Only handwriting speed (d) Only punctuation
30. Reading Comprehension passages test all of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) Direct facts (b) Inference (c) Vocabulary in context (d) The candidate's unrelated personal opinion

Section D: General Knowledge (10 Questions)

31. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in:
    (a) 1935 (b) 1947 (c) 1949 (d) 1969
32. As of August 2026, the RBI Governor is:
    (a) Urjit Patel (b) Sanjay Malhotra (c) Shaktikanta Das (d) Raghuram Rajan
33. As of August 2026, the repo rate stands at:
    (a) 4.50% (b) 5.25% (c) 6.00% (d) 6.50%
34. SIDBI primarily finances:
    (a) Small-scale industries (b) Foreign embassies (c) Large multinational corporations only (d) Agricultural exports exclusively
35. NEFT, RTGS, and IMPS are all examples of:
    (a) Electronic fund transfer systems (b) Types of fixed deposits (c) Insurance products (d) Credit rating agencies
36. The Constitution of India came into effect on:
    (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 2 October 1950
37. As of August 2026, the President of India is:
    (a) Ram Nath Kovind (b) Droupadi Murmu (c) Pratibha Patil (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
38. The Gupta Empire is often called the:
    (a) Golden Age of ancient India (b) Iron Age of India (c) Age of Invasions (d) Bronze Age of India
39. The Thar Desert is located in which Indian state predominantly?
    (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Punjab (d) Haryana
40. India's National Emblem is derived from:
    (a) The Ashokan Lion Capital at Sarnath (b) The Red Fort (c) The Taj Mahal (d) The Indian tricolour

Section E: Computer Knowledge (10 Questions)

41. The CPU's component responsible for performing arithmetic and logical operations is the:
    (a) Control Unit (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) (c) Cache (d) Motherboard
42. RAM is best described as:
    (a) Non-volatile storage (b) Volatile memory used for temporary data during processing (c) A type of printer (d) An output device
43. A LAN typically covers:
    (a) A single office or building (b) An entire country (c) The entire globe (d) Multiple continents
44. DNS primarily functions to:
    (a) Encrypt files (b) Translate domain names into IP addresses (c) Print documents (d) Manage a printer queue
45. HTTPS is preferred for online banking because it:
    (a) Provides an encrypted, secure connection (b) Loads pages faster in all cases (c) Requires no internet connection (d) Uses less data always
46. Core Banking Solution (CBS) enables:
    (a) Networked branches to access centralised customer data in real time (b) Only paper record-keeping (c) Only ATM hardware manufacture (d) Only foreign exchange trading
47. A firewall's core function is to:
    (a) Monitor and control network traffic for security (b) Cool the processor (c) Increase RAM speed (d) Store passwords in plain text
48. ROM is best described as:
    (a) Volatile memory (b) Non-volatile memory typically storing firmware (c) An input device (d) A networking protocol
49. Phishing attacks typically attempt to:
    (a) Deceive users into revealing confidential information (b) Improve network speed (c) Increase RAM capacity (d) Repair a hard disk
50. Which of the following is an example of application software?
    (a) An operating system (b) A word processor or spreadsheet (c) Device firmware (d) A network protocol

Answer Key

Section A: 1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(c)

Section B: 11.(a) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Section C: 21.(a) 22.(c) 23.(a) 24.(a) 25.(a) 26.(b) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(b) 30.(d)

Section D: 31.(c) 32.(b) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(a) 36.(b) 37.(b) 38.(a) 39.(a) 40.(a)

Section E: 41.(b) 42.(b) 43.(a) 44.(b) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(a) 48.(b) 49.(a) 50.(b)