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← Index: RRB JE Mechanical Engineering — Complete Study GuideChapter 16
Study Guide · Chapter 16

Mock Test 2 — RRB JE CBT 2 Technical Abilities Pattern (50 MCQs)

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A second full-length practice test, covering the same syllabus breadth as Mock Test 1 with a different question set. Suggested time limit: 40 minutes.

  1. Newton's Second Law of Motion is expressed as:
    (a) F = ma (b) F = m/a (c) F = m + a (d) F = a/m
  2. The coefficient of friction (μ) is defined as:
    (a) The ratio of limiting friction force to normal reaction (b) The ratio of normal reaction to friction force (c) The product of mass and acceleration (d) The ratio of stress to strain
  3. The Modulus of Elasticity of steel is approximately:
    (a) 2×10⁵ N/mm² (200 GPa) (b) 2×10³ N/mm² (c) 2×10⁷ N/mm² (d) 25–35 GPa
  4. Tensile stress results from a force that:
    (a) Pulls/stretches a material (b) Pushes/squeezes a material (c) Causes layers to slide past each other (d) Causes rotation only
  5. Shear stress results from forces that:
    (a) Pull a material apart uniformly (b) Cause layers to slide relative to each other (c) Compress a material uniformly (d) Have no effect on material layers
  6. The parallelogram law of forces is used to:
    (a) Determine the resultant of two forces acting at a point (b) Calculate stress directly (c) Determine the coefficient of friction (d) Calculate Poisson's ratio
  7. The Third Law of Thermodynamics concerns the behaviour of entropy as temperature approaches:
    (a) Infinity (b) Absolute zero (c) Room temperature (d) The boiling point of water
  8. A closed thermodynamic system exchanges with its surroundings:
    (a) Both mass and energy (b) Energy but not mass (c) Mass but not energy (d) Neither mass nor energy
  9. An open thermodynamic system exchanges with its surroundings:
    (a) Both mass and energy (b) Energy but not mass (c) Mass but not energy (d) Neither mass nor energy
  10. The Diesel cycle is the idealised air-standard cycle for:
    (a) Spark-ignition (petrol) engines (b) Compression-ignition (diesel) engines (c) Steam power plants (d) Refrigeration cycles
  11. The Clausius statement of the Second Law asserts that:
    (a) Heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder to a hotter body without external work (b) Heat always flows from cold to hot spontaneously (c) All processes are reversible (d) Entropy is always zero
  12. A four-bar mechanism consists of how many rigid links connected in a closed loop?
    (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six
  13. The slider-crank mechanism converts:
    (a) Reciprocating motion into oscillating motion only (b) Rotary motion into reciprocating motion, or vice versa (c) Linear motion into linear motion (d) Nothing
  14. Spur gears have teeth that are:
    (a) Parallel to the axis of rotation (b) Angled relative to the axis (c) Used only for intersecting shafts (d) Used only for very high reduction ratios
  15. Gears, compared to belt drives, provide:
    (a) A slipping, non-positive drive (b) A positive (non-slip) drive through direct tooth contact (c) No power transmission capability (d) Only very low-speed transmission
  16. A governor's primary function, distinct from a flywheel, is to:
    (a) Store kinetic energy for one engine cycle only (b) Regulate the mean speed of an engine over a period of varying load (c) Provide gear reduction (d) Measure temperature
  17. The Continuity Equation (A1V1 = A2V2) expresses conservation of:
    (a) Energy (b) Mass (c) Momentum only (d) Pressure
  18. Turbulent pipe flow is generally associated with Reynolds Numbers:
    (a) Below 2000 (b) Above ~4000 (c) Exactly 2000 (d) Below 1000
  19. A reciprocating pump is generally better suited to applications requiring:
    (a) High flow rate at low pressure (b) High pressure at relatively low flow rates (c) Zero pressure output (d) Only gas compression
  20. A Francis turbine is classified as:
    (a) An impulse turbine (b) A reaction turbine (c) A positive displacement pump (d) A centrifugal compressor
  21. Kinematic viscosity is defined as the ratio of:
    (a) Dynamic viscosity to density (b) Density to dynamic viscosity (c) Pressure to velocity (d) Velocity to density
  22. Investment casting (lost-wax casting) is valued for:
    (a) Very high dimensional accuracy and intricate detail (b) Being the cheapest process for large simple castings (c) Requiring no pattern at all (d) Using only sand moulds
  23. Oxy-acetylene welding is an example of:
    (a) Arc welding (b) Gas welding (c) Resistance welding (d) Friction welding
  24. A milling machine uses:
    (a) A rotating multi-point cutter against a workpiece (b) A stationary tool only (c) Molten metal poured into a mould (d) An electric arc for cutting
  25. A drilling machine is primarily used to:
    (a) Produce round holes using a rotating drill bit (b) Cut external threads only (c) Cast molten metal (d) Weld two plates together
  26. Which of the following are the three fundamental machining parameters?
    (a) Cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut (b) Voltage, current, and resistance (c) Pressure, temperature, and volume (d) Mass, length, and time
  27. A micrometer is commonly used to measure:
    (a) Small, precise dimensions like wire diameter or sheet thickness (b) Very large distances like building lengths (c) Fluid flow rate (d) Electrical resistance
  28. Which casting process uses a wax pattern coated with a ceramic shell, melted out before pouring metal?
    (a) Sand casting (b) Die casting (c) Investment casting (lost-wax casting) (d) Centrifugal casting
  29. A two-stroke engine, compared to a four-stroke engine, generally provides:
    (a) Less power per cycle for a given size (b) More power per cycle for a given size, but often less fuel efficiency (c) Identical efficiency in all cases (d) No practical power output
  30. During the compression stroke, the piston:
    (a) Moves down, drawing in charge (b) Moves up, compressing the charge (c) Remains stationary (d) Moves down, expelling exhaust
  31. CI (diesel) engines, compared to SI (petrol) engines, typically have:
    (a) Lower compression ratios (b) Higher compression ratios, relying on high compression for auto-ignition (c) No compression at all (d) Identical compression ratios always
  32. Volumetric efficiency compares:
    (a) Actual air/mixture volume drawn in to the theoretical swept volume (b) Fuel consumption to distance travelled (c) Engine weight to power output (d) Compression ratio to MEP
  33. In a thermal power plant, the turbine's primary function is to:
    (a) Generate heat (b) Expand steam to drive a generator (c) Condense steam (d) Pump water into the boiler
  34. Diesel power plants, compared to large-scale thermal/hydro plants, are commonly used for:
    (a) The bulk of a nation's baseload power generation (b) Smaller-scale or standby/backup power generation (c) Only nuclear applications (d) Only offshore wind integration
  35. The Technical Abilities section in RRB JE CBT 2 typically carries how many marks?
    (a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 100 (d) 120
  36. The Physics & Chemistry section in RRB JE CBT 2 is set at approximately what standard?
    (a) Up to Class 10 (CBSE syllabus) (b) Graduate level (c) Only Class 12 (d) Postgraduate level
  37. Which of the following is an example of an output device in basic computer applications?
    (a) Keyboard (b) Mouse (c) Monitor (d) Scanner
  38. ROM in a computer system is best described as:
    (a) Volatile memory erased on power-off (b) Non-volatile memory retaining data without power (c) An output device (d) A type of printer
  39. Which of the following is a widely used open-source operating system alongside Windows?
    (a) MS Office (b) Linux (c) Photoshop (d) AutoCAD
  40. Which of the following is one of the three organs of the Indian government established by the Constitution?
    (a) The Judiciary (b) A political party (c) A trade union (d) A newspaper
  41. India's Constitution came into effect on:
    (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 2 October 1950
  42. Ozone layer depletion primarily reduces atmospheric protection from:
    (a) Visible light (b) Harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation (c) Infrared radiation only (d) Radio waves
  43. Acid rain results primarily from which pollutants reacting with atmospheric moisture?
    (a) Carbon dioxide and methane (b) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides (c) CFCs alone (d) Particulate matter alone
  44. Global warming is primarily attributed to:
    (a) Increased greenhouse gas concentrations trapping heat (b) Ozone in the stratosphere (c) Particulate matter alone (d) Groundwater depletion
  45. A factor of safety greater than 1 indicates:
    (a) The working stress exceeds the material's strength (b) A safety margin exists between working stress and material strength (c) The material has already failed (d) No relevance to design
  46. Reciprocating motion is best described as:
    (a) Continuous rotation about a fixed axis (b) Back-and-forth linear motion (c) Back-and-forth rotary motion within a limited angle (d) Motion along a curved path only
  47. In an IC engine, a flywheel absorbs energy during the power stroke and releases it:
    (a) Never; it only absorbs energy (b) During other (non-power) strokes, to smooth speed fluctuations (c) Only when the engine is switched off (d) Only during braking
  48. A worm gear mechanism, in many designs, is characterised by:
    (a) The worm wheel typically driving the worm (b) The worm typically driving the worm wheel, with inherent self-locking (c) No power transmission at all (d) Equal-speed transmission only
  49. Specific gravity of a liquid is defined relative to the density of:
    (a) Air (b) Water (c) Mercury exclusively (d) Steel
  50. RRB JE examinations apply negative marking of:
    (a) 1/4 mark (b) 1/3 mark (c) 1/2 mark (d) No negative marking

Answer Key

1.(a)

2.(a)

3.(a)

4.(a)

5.(b)

6.(a)

7.(b)

8.(b)

9.(a)

10.(b)

11.(a)

12.(c)

13.(b)

14.(a)

15.(b)

16.(b)

17.(b)

18.(b)

19.(b)

20.(b)

21.(a)

22.(a)

23.(b)

24.(a)

25.(a)

26.(a)

27.(a)

28.(c)

29.(b)

30.(b)

31.(b)

32.(a)

33.(b)

34.(b)

35.(c)

36.(a)

37.(c)

38.(b)

39.(b)

40.(a)

41.(b)

42.(b)

43.(b)

44.(a)

45.(b)

46.(b)

47.(b)

48.(b)

49.(b) 50.(b)

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