Mock Test 2 — SSC Stenographer CBT Pattern (60 Representative MCQs)

A second representative practice test, covering the same proportional weighting as Mock Test 1 with a different question set. Suggested time limit: 40 minutes.

Section A: General Intelligence & Reasoning (15 Questions)

1. Choose the odd one out: Circle, Square, Triangle, Sphere
   (a) Circle (b) Square (c) Triangle (d) Sphere
2. In the analogy "Fish is to Water as Bird is to ___," the missing word is:
   (a) Nest (b) Sky (c) Tree (d) Feather
3. In the series 2, 5, 11, 23, ?, what is the next term (pattern: ×2+1)?
   (a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48
4. If in a code, PEN is written as QFO (each letter shifted forward by 1), how is BOOK written?
   (a) CPPL (b) CPPM (c) DPPL (d) CQQL
5. Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is my father's mother." How is the woman related to the man?
   (a) Mother (b) Grandmother (c) Aunt (d) Sister
6. A man walks 6 km south, then turns left and walks 8 km. How far is he from his starting point?
   (a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 12 km (d) 14 km
7. A mirror image of the letter "E" would appear as a shape resembling:
   (a) A backward "E" (mirrored horizontally) (b) An unchanged "E" (c) The letter "3" exactly (d) The letter "M"
8. In a coding pattern where each letter is shifted forward by 3 positions, "A" would be coded as:
   (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) Z
9. In the series 7, 14, 28, 56, ?, what is the next term?
   (a) 84 (b) 100 (c) 112 (d) 120
10. In order and ranking, if a student ranks 15th from the top in a class of 40, their rank from the bottom is:
    (a) 24th (b) 25th (c) 26th (d) 27th
11. Given: "All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
    (a) All roses fade quickly (b) Some flowers are roses (c) No definite conclusion about roses fading can be drawn from these two statements alone (d) No roses are flowers
12. In the letter series Z, X, U, Q, ?, what is the next letter (gaps: -2,-3,-4, next -5)?
    (a) L (b) M (c) N (d) K
13. Data Sufficiency questions primarily test whether:
    (a) The given data is grammatically correct (b) The given data is sufficient to answer a question (c) The question has no answer (d) Only calculation speed
14. In a paper-cutting question, a square sheet folded diagonally once and cut at a corner, when unfolded, typically shows:
    (a) No change (b) A symmetric cut pattern reflecting the fold line (c) The sheet torn into four separate pieces (d) A single hole in the centre only
15. Seating arrangement puzzles are best solved by:
    (a) Guessing randomly (b) Systematically diagramming clues and eliminating impossible arrangements (c) Ignoring negative clues (d) Solving only the first clue

Section B: General Awareness (15 Questions)

16. The Gupta Empire is often called the:
    (a) Iron Age of India (b) Golden Age of ancient India (c) Age of Invasions (d) Bronze Age of India
17. The Revolt of 1857 is widely regarded as:
    (a) The first major armed uprising against British rule (b) A minor local skirmish (c) The final battle of Indian independence (d) A purely economic protest
18. India attained independence on:
    (a) 26 January 1947 (b) 15 August 1947 (c) 2 October 1947 (d) 26 November 1947
19. The Supreme Court of India is headed by the:
    (a) Attorney General (b) Chief Justice of India (CJI) (c) President directly (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
20. The Thar Desert is located in which part of India?
    (a) Northwest (Rajasthan) (b) Northeast (c) South (d) Central India
21. Which of the following is a Himalayan river system?
    (a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Ganga (d) Kaveri
22. The Union Budget is typically presented on:
    (a) 1 April (b) 1 February (c) 31 March (d) 26 January
23. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) primarily functions to:
    (a) Carry genetic information in living organisms (b) Generate electrical energy (c) Store computer data (d) Regulate banking transactions
24. India's National Emblem is derived from:
    (a) The Ashokan Lion Capital at Sarnath (b) The Red Fort (c) The Taj Mahal (d) The Indian tricolour
25. SAARC's headquarters is located in:
    (a) New Delhi (b) Kathmandu (c) Islamabad (d) Dhaka
26. India's National Flower is the:
    (a) Rose (b) Lotus (c) Sunflower (d) Marigold
27. The IMF and World Bank headquarters are both located in:
    (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Washington, D.C. (d) London
28. India's National Fruit is the:
    (a) Apple (b) Mango (c) Banana (d) Guava
29. Which sector is the largest contributor to India's GDP?
    (a) Primary sector (agriculture) (b) Secondary sector (manufacturing) (c) Tertiary sector (services) (d) None; all are equal
30. As of August 2026, the Prime Minister of India is:
    (a) Rahul Gandhi (b) Narendra Modi (c) Manmohan Singh (d) Amit Shah

Section C: English Language & Comprehension (30 Questions)

31. Identify the error: "Each of the students have submitted their assignment." The error is in:
    (a) "have" should be "has" (b) "students" should be "student" (c) "submitted" should be "submit" (d) No error
32. Choose the correctly formed passive voice of "The chef cooked the meal.":
    (a) The meal was cooked by the chef (b) The meal is cooking by the chef (c) The meal cooks by the chef (d) The chef is cooked by the meal
33. Fill in the blank: "He is good ___ mathematics."
    (a) in (b) at (c) on (d) with
34. One-word substitution for "A place where birds are kept" is:
    (a) Aviary (b) Apiary (c) Aquarium (d) Menagerie
35. Choose the correct form: "If I ___ rich, I would travel the world."
    (a) am (b) was (c) were (d) will be
36. One-word substitution for "A person who can speak two languages" is:
    (a) Bilingual (b) Multilingual (c) Linguist (d) Translator
37. Choose the word closest in meaning to "Bibliophile":
    (a) A person who loves books (b) A person who fears books (c) A person who writes books only (d) A person who sells books
38. Identify the error in the sentence: "She don't like coffee." The error is in:
    (a) Subject-verb agreement (b) Tense (c) Preposition (d) Article usage
39. One-word substitution for "A person who studies the past through material remains" is:
    (a) Archaeologist (b) Historian (c) Anthropologist (d) Geologist
40. Choose the correct preposition: "He is afraid ___ spiders."
    (a) of (b) from (c) with (d) about
41. Choose the correct plural form of "Analysis":
    (a) Analysises (b) Analyses (c) Analysis's (d) Analysi
42. Identify the error: "He is one of the best player in the team." The error is in:
    (a) "player" should be "players" (b) "one" should be "some" (c) "best" should be "better" (d) No error
43. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) Between you and I, this is a secret. (b) Between you and me, this is a secret. (c) Between you and myself, this is a secret. (d) Between I and you, this is a secret.
44. Fill in the blank: "The committee ___ decided to postpone the meeting."
    (a) have (b) has (c) having (d) had been
45. Choose the antonym of "Diligent":
    (a) Hardworking (b) Lazy (c) Careful (d) Attentive
46. Identify the error: "He along with his friends were going to the market." The error is in:
    (a) "were" should be "was" (b) "along with" should be "along" (c) "friends" should be "friend" (d) No error
47. Choose the correct form: "I wish I ___ taller."
    (a) am (b) was (c) were (d) will be
48. One-word substitution for "Handwriting that cannot be read" is:
    (a) Illegible (b) Indelible (c) Incomprehensible (d) Inaudible
49. Choose the synonym of "Candid":
    (a) Frank (b) Secretive (c) Dishonest (d) Reserved
50. Fill in the blank: "She is allergic ___ dust."
    (a) to (b) from (c) with (d) at
51. Identify the error: "The news are very disturbing today." The error is in:
    (a) "are" should be "is" (b) "news" should be "new" (c) "disturbing" should be "disturbed" (d) No error
52. Choose the antonym of "Benevolent":
    (a) Kind (b) Malevolent (c) Generous (d) Charitable
53. Choose the synonym of "Ephemeral":
    (a) Permanent (b) Transient (c) Eternal (d) Stable
54. Identify the error: "Neither of the boys have completed their homework." The error is in:
    (a) "Neither...have" should be "Neither...has" (b) "boys" should be "boy" (c) "completed" should be "complete" (d) No error
55. In a Cloze Test, the primary skill being tested is:
    (a) Handwriting speed (b) Vocabulary, grammar, and contextual comprehension together (c) Only spelling (d) Only punctuation
56. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
    (a) "I bought apples, oranges and bananas." (b) "I bought apples oranges, and bananas." (c) "I bought, apples oranges and bananas." (d) "I bought apples oranges and, bananas."
57. Reading Comprehension questions commonly test all of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) Direct facts stated in the passage (b) Inference from the passage (c) Vocabulary in context (d) The candidate's personal opinion, unrelated to the passage
58. Para jumbling questions are best solved by first identifying:
    (a) The shortest sentence (b) The topic/opening sentence and logical/pronoun references between sentences (c) The sentence with the most commas (d) The last sentence randomly
59. Fill in the blank: "She has been living here ___ 2015."
    (a) since (b) for (c) from (d) by
60. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) He is going to school since morning. (b) He has been going to school since morning. (c) He go to school since morning. (d) He going to school since morning.

Answer Key

Section A: 1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(c) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(b)

Section B: 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(b) 23.(a) 24.(a) 25.(b) 26.(b) 27.(c) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(b)

Section C: 31.(a) 32.(a) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(a) 39.(a) 40.(a) 41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(b) 44.(b) 45.(b) 46.(a) 47.(c) 48.(a) 49.(a) 50.(a) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(b) 54.(a) 55.(b) 56.(a) 57.(d) 58.(b) 59.(a) 60.(b)