Part X — Full-Length Mock Test

Chapter 11: Mock Test 1 — IB ACIO Tier 1 Pattern (100 MCQs)

This full-length mock test replicates the IB ACIO Tier 1 pattern: 20 questions each from Current Affairs/Static GK, General Studies, Numerical Aptitude, Reasoning, and English Language. Suggested time limit: 60 minutes.

Section A: Current Affairs & Static GK (20 Questions)

1. India's National Anthem, "Jana Gana Mana," was composed by:
   (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Iqbal
2. India's National Song, "Vande Mataram," was composed by:
   (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (c) Subramania Bharati (d) Muhammad Iqbal
3. India's National Emblem is derived from:
   (a) The Ashokan Lion Capital at Sarnath (b) The Red Fort (c) The Taj Mahal (d) The Indian tricolour
4. India's National Animal is the:
   (a) Elephant (b) Royal Bengal Tiger (c) Lion (d) Peacock
5. The United Nations (UN) headquarters is located in:
   (a) Geneva (b) New York (c) Washington, D.C. (d) Paris
6. The World Health Organization (WHO) headquarters is located in:
   (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Washington, D.C. (d) Vienna
7. The IMF and World Bank headquarters are both located in:
   (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Washington, D.C. (d) London
8. The Intelligence Bureau (IB) functions under which ministry?
   (a) Ministry of Defence (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of External Affairs (d) Ministry of Finance
9. The Intelligence Bureau is often described as:
   (a) The world's newest intelligence agency (b) The world's oldest intelligence agency (c) An agency with no historical continuity (d) A purely military agency
10. India's external intelligence agency, established in 1968, is the:
    (a) Intelligence Bureau (IB) (b) Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) (c) National Investigation Agency (NIA) (d) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
11. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established following which event?
    (a) The 1993 Mumbai bombings (b) The 2001 Parliament attack (c) The 2008 Mumbai attacks (d) The 1999 Kargil War
12. SAARC's headquarters is located in:
    (a) New Delhi (b) Kathmandu (c) Islamabad (d) Dhaka
13. As of August 2026, the President of India is:
    (a) Ram Nath Kovind (b) Droupadi Murmu (c) Pratibha Patil (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
14. As of August 2026, the Prime Minister of India is:
    (a) Rahul Gandhi (b) Narendra Modi (c) Manmohan Singh (d) Amit Shah
15. India's National Bird is the:
    (a) Peacock (b) Sparrow (c) Crane (d) Eagle
16. India's National Flower is the:
    (a) Rose (b) Lotus (c) Sunflower (d) Marigold
17. Current Affairs questions in IB ACIO Tier 1 typically draw from approximately what preceding period?
    (a) The preceding 1 month only (b) The preceding 6–12 months (c) The preceding 5 years (d) Only events from the current day
18. ASEAN's headquarters is located in:
    (a) Bangkok (b) Jakarta (c) Manila (d) Singapore
19. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) primarily functions as India's:
    (a) External intelligence agency (b) Premier domestic investigative agency for major crimes/corruption cases (c) Border security force (d) Central bank
20. India's National Fruit is the:
    (a) Apple (b) Mango (c) Banana (d) Guava

Section B: General Studies (20 Questions)

21. The Indus Valley Civilisation's major sites include Harappa and:
    (a) Pataliputra (b) Mohenjo-daro (c) Ujjain (d) Kanauj
22. Ashoka embraced Buddhism after which battle?
    (a) Battle of Buxar (b) Kalinga War (c) Battle of Plassey (d) First Anglo-Maratha War
23. The Mughal Empire was founded by:
    (a) Akbar (b) Babur (c) Humayun (d) Sher Shah Suri
24. The Taj Mahal was built by which Mughal emperor?
    (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb
25. The Indian National Congress was founded in:
    (a) 1875 (b) 1885 (c) 1905 (d) 1920
26. The Constitution of India came into effect on:
    (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 2 October 1950
27. Who chaired the Constitution's Drafting Committee?
    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) Sardar Patel (d) Rajendra Prasad
28. Fundamental Rights are found in which part of the Constitution?
    (a) Part II (b) Part III (c) Part IV (d) Part V
29. India is the world's most populous country, having surpassed which country around 2023?
    (a) United States (b) Indonesia (c) China (d) Brazil
30. The Thar Desert is located in which part of India?
    (a) Northwest (Rajasthan) (b) Northeast (c) South (d) Central India
31. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in:
    (a) 1921 (b) 1935 (c) 1947 (d) 1969
32. Which sector is the largest contributor to India's GDP?
    (a) Primary sector (agriculture) (b) Secondary sector (manufacturing) (c) Tertiary sector (services) (d) None; all are equal
33. RAM in a computer system is best described as:
    (a) Permanent, non-volatile storage (b) Volatile memory used for temporary data during processing (c) A type of printer (d) An input device
34. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants:
    (a) Convert light energy into chemical energy, using CO2 and water, releasing oxygen (b) Absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide exclusively (c) Convert water into oxygen only (d) Store genetic information
35. The Battle of Plassey, marking a key step in British colonial expansion, was fought in:
    (a) 1757 (b) 1764 (c) 1857 (d) 1905
36. Subhas Chandra Bose is most closely associated with:
    (a) The Indian National Army (INA) (b) The Indian National Congress presidency alone (c) The Din-i-Ilahi policy (d) The Kalinga War
37. The Gupta Empire is often called the:
    (a) Iron Age of India (b) Golden Age of ancient India (c) Age of Invasions (d) Bronze Age of India
38. India shares a land border with all of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bhutan (d) Myanmar
39. The Repo Rate is the rate at which:
    (a) The RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks (b) Commercial banks lend to the RBI (c) Banks lend to each other exclusively (d) The government borrows from foreign banks
40. Which of the following is a widely used open-source operating system?
    (a) Windows (b) macOS (c) Linux (d) MS Office

Section C: Numerical Aptitude (20 Questions)

41. What is 25% of 480?
    (a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 130
42. If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 64, the smaller number is:
    (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32
43. A shopkeeper buys an item for ₹800 and sells it for ₹960. His profit percentage is:
    (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
44. The simple interest on ₹5000 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:
    (a) ₹1000 (b) ₹1100 (c) ₹1200 (d) ₹1300
45. A train covers 300 km in 5 hours. Its average speed is:
    (a) 50 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) 70 km/h (d) 75 km/h
46. Two trains, 150 km apart, move toward each other at 60 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. They will meet after:
    (a) 1 hour (b) 1.5 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 2.5 hours
47. A can complete a work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Working together, they will complete the work in:
    (a) 5 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 12 days
48. If A's income is 25% more than B's, then B's income is what percent less than A's?
    (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
49. The compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years (compounded annually) is:
    (a) ₹2,000 (b) ₹2,100 (c) ₹2,200 (d) ₹1,900
50. In a mixture, milk and water are in the ratio 4:1. If the total mixture is 50 litres, the quantity of water is:
    (a) 8 litres (b) 10 litres (c) 12 litres (d) 15 litres
51. A sum of ₹6000 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 2:3:1. B's share is:
    (a) ₹1000 (b) ₹2000 (c) ₹3000 (d) ₹4000
52. If the marked price of an item is ₹1000 and a discount of 20% is given, the selling price is:
    (a) ₹700 (b) ₹750 (c) ₹800 (d) ₹850
53. In a pie chart representing total sales, a sector of 90° represents what fraction of total sales?
    (a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/6
54. A boat's speed in still water is 10 km/h, and the current's speed is 2 km/h. The boat's downstream speed is:
    (a) 8 km/h (b) 10 km/h (c) 12 km/h (d) 14 km/h
55. If 5 workers can build a wall in 12 days, how many days will 10 workers take?
    (a) 4 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 10 days
56. The average of 5 consecutive integers starting from 10 is:
    (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
57. What is the value of 15² − 10²?
    (a) 100 (b) 125 (c) 150 (d) 175
58. A number when increased by 20% becomes 120. The original number is:
    (a) 90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) 105
59. If the cost price of 10 articles equals the selling price of 8 articles, the profit percentage is:
    (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
60. The LCM of 12 and 18 is:
    (a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 72

Section D: Reasoning & Logical Aptitude (20 Questions)

61. If A is B's father and B is C's mother, then A is C's:
    (a) Uncle (b) Grandfather (c) Brother (d) Cousin
62. Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the woman related to the man?
    (a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Daughter
63. Given: "All cats are animals. All animals are living things." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
    (a) All cats are living things (b) All living things are cats (c) No cats are living things (d) Some living things are not cats
64. If in a code, CAT is written as DBU, how is DOG written?
    (a) EPH (b) EPI (c) FQH (d) CNF
65. A man walks 5 km north, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far and in what direction is he from his starting point?
    (a) 3 km, south of start (b) 3 km, east of start (c) 8 km, north of start (d) 3 km, west of start
66. In the series 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?, what is the next term?
    (a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 36 (d) 44
67. In the analogy "Pen is to Write as Knife is to ___," the missing word is:
    (a) Sharp (b) Cut (c) Kitchen (d) Metal
68. In the letter series A, C, F, J, O, ?, what is the next letter?
    (a) T (b) U (c) S (d) V
69. Data Sufficiency questions primarily test whether:
    (a) The given data is grammatically correct (b) The given data is sufficient to answer a question, without necessarily solving it fully (c) The question has no answer at all (d) Only numerical calculation skill
70. In order and ranking problems, if a student is 7th from the top in a class of 30, their rank from the bottom is:
    (a) 22nd (b) 23rd (c) 24th (d) 21st
71. Seating arrangement puzzles are best solved by:
    (a) Guessing randomly (b) Systematically diagramming clues and eliminating impossible arrangements (c) Ignoring negative clues (d) Solving only the first clue
72. Inequality reasoning questions require candidates to:
    (a) Ignore the relational symbols entirely (b) Combine relational statements logically to determine valid conclusions (c) Assume all variables are equal (d) Only consider the first inequality
73. In a coding pattern where each letter is shifted forward by 2 positions, the letter "Z" would be coded as:
    (a) A (b) B (c) Y (d) X
74. Venn diagrams are a particularly useful tool for solving:
    (a) Only numerical simplification (b) Syllogism-type logical deduction problems (c) Only direction sense problems (d) Only coding-decoding problems
75. Given: "Some fruits are red. All red things are sweet." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
    (a) Some fruits are sweet (b) All fruits are sweet (c) No fruits are sweet (d) No conclusion can be drawn
76. A is taller than B, C is shorter than B. Who is the tallest?
    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Cannot be determined
77. If "TAP" is coded as "20-1-16" using alphabet positions, how is "CAT" coded?
    (a) 3-1-20 (b) 3-1-19 (c) 4-1-20 (d) 3-2-20
78. In a family, P is Q's sister, Q is R's brother, and R is S's father. How is P related to S?
    (a) Aunt (b) Mother (c) Grandmother (d) Sister
79. Which figure comes next in a simple non-verbal series showing a rotating shape by 90° each step?
    (a) The shape rotated a further 90° (b) The identical starting figure (c) A completely different shape (d) A mirrored figure only
80. A judgment/assertion-reason question tests a candidate's ability to:
    (a) Evaluate whether a given reason correctly explains a given assertion (b) Perform arithmetic calculations (c) Identify grammatical errors (d) Read a bar graph

Section E: English Language (20 Questions)

81. Identify the error in the sentence: "She don't like coffee." The error is in:
    (a) Subject-verb agreement (b) Tense (c) Preposition (d) Article usage
82. Fill in the blank: "She has been living here ___ 2015."
    (a) since (b) for (c) from (d) by
83. Choose the word closest in meaning to "Bibliophile":
    (a) A person who loves books (b) A person who fears books (c) A person who writes books only (d) A person who sells books
84. Choose the antonym of "Benevolent":
    (a) Kind (b) Malevolent (c) Generous (d) Charitable
85. In a Cloze Test, the primary skill being tested is:
    (a) Handwriting speed (b) Vocabulary, grammar, and contextual comprehension together (c) Only spelling (d) Only punctuation
86. Identify the error: "Neither of the boys have completed their homework." The error is in:
    (a) "Neither...have" should be "Neither...has" (b) "boys" should be "boy" (c) "completed" should be "complete" (d) No error
87. Para jumbling questions are best solved by first identifying:
    (a) The shortest sentence (b) The topic/opening sentence and logical/pronoun references between sentences (c) The sentence with the most commas (d) The last sentence randomly
88. One-word substitution for "A person who can speak two languages" is:
    (a) Bilingual (b) Multilingual (c) Linguist (d) Translator
89. Choose the correct form: "If I ___ rich, I would travel the world."
    (a) am (b) was (c) were (d) will be
90. Choose the synonym of "Ephemeral":
    (a) Permanent (b) Transient (c) Eternal (d) Stable
91. Identify the error: "Each of the students have submitted their assignment." The error is in:
    (a) "have" should be "has" (b) "students" should be "student" (c) "submitted" should be "submit" (d) No error
92. Choose the correctly formed passive voice of "The chef cooked the meal.":
    (a) The meal was cooked by the chef (b) The meal is cooking by the chef (c) The meal cooks by the chef (d) The chef is cooked by the meal
93. Fill in the blank: "He is good ___ mathematics."
    (a) in (b) at (c) on (d) with
94. One-word substitution for "A place where birds are kept" is:
    (a) Aviary (b) Apiary (c) Aquarium (d) Menagerie
95. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) He is going to school since morning. (b) He has been going to school since morning. (c) He go to school since morning. (d) He going to school since morning.
96. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
    (a) "I bought apples, oranges and bananas." (b) "I bought apples oranges, and bananas." (c) "I bought, apples oranges and bananas." (d) "I bought apples oranges and, bananas."
97. One-word substitution for "A person who studies the past through material remains" is:
    (a) Archaeologist (b) Historian (c) Anthropologist (d) Geologist
98. Choose the correct preposition: "He is afraid ___ spiders."
    (a) of (b) from (c) with (d) about
99. Choose the correct plural form of "Analysis":
    (a) Analysises (b) Analyses (c) Analysis's (d) Analysi
100. Identify the error: "He is one of the best player in the team." The error is in:
     (a) "player" should be "players" (b) "one" should be "some" (c) "best" should be "better" (d) No error

Answer Key

Section A: 1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(b) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Section B: 21.(b) 22.(b) 23.(b) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(a) 31.(b) 32.(c) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(a) 36.(a) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(c)

Section C: 41.(c) 42.(b) 43.(b) 44.(c) 45.(b) 46.(b) 47.(b) 48.(a) 49.(b) 50.(b) 51.(c) 52.(c) 53.(c) 54.(c) 55.(b) 56.(c) 57.(b) 58.(c) 59.(b) 60.(b)

Section D: 61.(b) 62.(b) 63.(a) 64.(a) 65.(b) 66.(b) 67.(b) 68.(b) 69.(b) 70.(c) 71.(b) 72.(b) 73.(b) 74.(b) 75.(a) 76.(a) 77.(a) 78.(a) 79.(a) 80.(a)

Section E: 81.(a) 82.(a) 83.(a) 84.(b) 85.(b) 86.(a) 87.(b) 88.(a) 89.(c) 90.(b) 91.(a) 92.(a) 93.(b) 94.(a) 95.(b) 96.(a) 97.(a) 98.(a) 99.(b) 100.(a)