Mock Test 2 — IB ACIO Tier 1 Pattern (100 MCQs)

A second full-length practice test, covering the same syllabus breadth as Mock Test 1 with a different question set. Suggested time limit: 60 minutes.

Section A: Current Affairs & Static GK (20 Questions)

1. The Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) was established in:
   (a) 1947 (b) 1962 (c) 1968 (d) 1984
2. India's National Song, "Vande Mataram," originally appeared in which novel?
   (a) Anandamath (b) Gora (c) Godaan (d) Gitanjali
3. ASEAN's headquarters is located in:
   (a) Bangkok (b) Jakarta (c) Manila (d) Singapore
4. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) primarily functions as India's:
   (a) External intelligence agency (b) Premier domestic investigative agency for major crimes/corruption cases (c) Border security force (d) Central bank
5. SAARC's headquarters is located in:
   (a) New Delhi (b) Kathmandu (c) Islamabad (d) Dhaka
6. India's National Fruit is the:
   (a) Apple (b) Mango (c) Banana (d) Guava
7. India's National Flower is the:
   (a) Rose (b) Lotus (c) Sunflower (d) Marigold
8. The World Health Organization (WHO) headquarters is located in:
   (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Washington, D.C. (d) Vienna
9. The IMF and World Bank headquarters are both located in:
   (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Washington, D.C. (d) London
10. The Intelligence Bureau is often described as:
    (a) The world's newest intelligence agency (b) The world's oldest intelligence agency (c) An agency with no historical continuity (d) A purely military agency
11. As of August 2026, the President of India is:
    (a) Ram Nath Kovind (b) Droupadi Murmu (c) Pratibha Patil (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
12. As of August 2026, the Prime Minister of India is:
    (a) Rahul Gandhi (b) Narendra Modi (c) Manmohan Singh (d) Amit Shah
13. India's National Animal is the:
    (a) Elephant (b) Royal Bengal Tiger (c) Lion (d) Peacock
14. India's National Emblem is derived from:
    (a) The Ashokan Lion Capital at Sarnath (b) The Red Fort (c) The Taj Mahal (d) The Indian tricolour
15. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established following which event?
    (a) The 1993 Mumbai bombings (b) The 2001 Parliament attack (c) The 2008 Mumbai attacks (d) The 1999 Kargil War
16. The Intelligence Bureau (IB) functions under which ministry?
    (a) Ministry of Defence (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of External Affairs (d) Ministry of Finance
17. Current Affairs questions in IB ACIO Tier 1 typically draw from approximately what preceding period?
    (a) The preceding 1 month only (b) The preceding 6–12 months (c) The preceding 5 years (d) Only events from the current day
18. India's National Bird is the:
    (a) Peacock (b) Sparrow (c) Crane (d) Eagle
19. The United Nations (UN) headquarters is located in:
    (a) Geneva (b) New York (c) Washington, D.C. (d) Paris
20. India's National Anthem, "Jana Gana Mana," was composed by:
    (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Iqbal

Section B: General Studies (20 Questions)

21. India's oldest surviving text is the:
    (a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata (c) Rigveda (d) Arthashastra
22. The Mauryan Empire was founded by:
    (a) Ashoka (b) Chandragupta Maurya (c) Bindusara (d) Samudragupta
23. Aryabhata, the mathematician-astronomer, is associated with which empire?
    (a) Maurya (b) Gupta (c) Delhi Sultanate (d) Mughal
24. The Delhi Sultanate comprised how many major dynasties?
    (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six
25. Babur established Mughal rule after winning which battle?
    (a) Second Battle of Panipat (b) First Battle of Panipat (c) Battle of Haldighati (d) Battle of Plassey
26. The Revolt of 1857 is widely regarded as:
    (a) The first major armed uprising against British rule (b) A minor local skirmish (c) The final battle of Indian independence (d) A purely economic protest
27. The Quit India Movement was launched in:
    (a) 1920 (b) 1930 (c) 1942 (d) 1947
28. India attained independence on:
    (a) 26 January 1947 (b) 15 August 1947 (c) 2 October 1947 (d) 26 November 1947
29. The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by which amendment?
    (a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (c) 73rd Amendment (d) 101st Amendment
30. India's Constitution is often described as:
    (a) The shortest written constitution in the world (b) The longest written constitution of any sovereign country (c) An entirely unwritten constitution (d) Identical to the UK's constitution
31. Directive Principles of State Policy, unlike Fundamental Rights, are:
    (a) Justiciable in court (b) Non-justiciable guidelines for governance (c) Identical in legal force to Fundamental Rights (d) Applicable only to Union Territories
32. The Supreme Court of India is headed by the:
    (a) Attorney General (b) Chief Justice of India (CJI) (c) President directly (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
33. India is the how many-th largest country in the world by area?
    (a) Second (b) Fourth (c) Seventh (d) Tenth
34. Which of the following is a Himalayan river system?
    (a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Ganga (d) Kaveri
35. Which of the following is a peninsular river system?
    (a) Indus (b) Brahmaputra (c) Narmada (d) Ganga
36. The Union Budget is typically presented on:
    (a) 1 April (b) 1 February (c) 31 March (d) 26 January
37. An NPA (Non-Performing Asset) refers to a loan where the borrower has stopped repayments for generally:
    (a) 30 days (b) 90 days (c) 180 days (d) 365 days
38. ROM in a computer system is best described as:
    (a) Volatile memory erased on power-off (b) Non-volatile memory retaining data without power (c) An output device (d) A type of printer
39. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) primarily functions to:
    (a) Carry genetic information in living organisms (b) Generate electrical energy (c) Store computer data (d) Regulate banking transactions
40. The periodic table organises chemical elements primarily by:
    (a) Alphabetical order of name (b) Atomic number (c) Colour (d) Discovery date only

Section C: Numerical Aptitude (20 Questions)

41. If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 64, the smaller number is:
    (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32
42. If A's income is 25% more than B's, then B's income is what percent less than A's?
    (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
43. The compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years (compounded annually) is:
    (a) ₹2,000 (b) ₹2,100 (c) ₹2,200 (d) ₹1,900
44. In a mixture, milk and water are in the ratio 4:1. If the total mixture is 50 litres, the quantity of water is:
    (a) 8 litres (b) 10 litres (c) 12 litres (d) 15 litres
45. If the marked price of an item is ₹1000 and a discount of 20% is given, the selling price is:
    (a) ₹700 (b) ₹750 (c) ₹800 (d) ₹850
46. In a pie chart representing total sales, a sector of 90° represents what fraction of total sales?
    (a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/6
47. The average of 5 consecutive integers starting from 10 is:
    (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
48. What is the value of 15² − 10²?
    (a) 100 (b) 125 (c) 150 (d) 175
49. A number when increased by 20% becomes 120. The original number is:
    (a) 90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) 105
50. If the cost price of 10 articles equals the selling price of 8 articles, the profit percentage is:
    (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
51. The LCM of 12 and 18 is:
    (a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 72
52. A train covers 300 km in 5 hours. Its average speed is:
    (a) 50 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) 70 km/h (d) 75 km/h
53. Two trains, 150 km apart, move toward each other at 60 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. They will meet after:
    (a) 1 hour (b) 1.5 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 2.5 hours
54. A can complete a work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Working together, they will complete the work in:
    (a) 5 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 12 days
55. A sum of ₹6000 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 2:3:1. C's share is:
    (a) ₹1000 (b) ₹2000 (c) ₹3000 (d) ₹4000
56. A boat's speed in still water is 10 km/h, and the current's speed is 2 km/h. The boat's upstream speed is:
    (a) 6 km/h (b) 8 km/h (c) 10 km/h (d) 12 km/h
57. If 5 workers can build a wall in 12 days, how many days will 10 workers take?
    (a) 4 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 10 days
58. What is 25% of 480?
    (a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 130
59. A shopkeeper buys an item for ₹800 and sells it for ₹960. His profit percentage is:
    (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
60. The simple interest on ₹5000 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:
    (a) ₹1000 (b) ₹1100 (c) ₹1200 (d) ₹1300

Section D: Reasoning & Logical Aptitude (20 Questions)

61. Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the woman related to the man?
    (a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Daughter
62. In a family, P is Q's sister, Q is R's brother, and R is S's father. How is P related to S?
    (a) Aunt (b) Mother (c) Grandmother (d) Sister
63. Given: "Some fruits are red. All red things are sweet." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
    (a) Some fruits are sweet (b) All fruits are sweet (c) No fruits are sweet (d) No conclusion can be drawn
64. If "TAP" is coded as "20-1-16" using alphabet positions, how is "CAT" coded?
    (a) 3-1-20 (b) 3-1-19 (c) 4-1-20 (d) 3-2-20
65. In the letter series A, C, F, J, O, ?, what is the next letter?
    (a) T (b) U (c) S (d) V
66. A is taller than B, C is shorter than B. Who is the tallest?
    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Cannot be determined
67. In the analogy "Pen is to Write as Knife is to ___," the missing word is:
    (a) Sharp (b) Cut (c) Kitchen (d) Metal
68. In the series 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?, what is the next term?
    (a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 36 (d) 44
69. A man walks 5 km north, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far and in what direction is he from his starting point?
    (a) 3 km, south of start (b) 3 km, east of start (c) 8 km, north of start (d) 3 km, west of start
70. In order and ranking problems, if a student is 12th from the bottom in a class of 30, their rank from the top is:
    (a) 18th (b) 19th (c) 20th (d) 17th
71. In a coding pattern where each letter is shifted forward by 2 positions, the letter "Z" would be coded as:
    (a) A (b) B (c) Y (d) X
72. Venn diagrams are a particularly useful tool for solving:
    (a) Only numerical simplification (b) Syllogism-type logical deduction problems (c) Only direction sense problems (d) Only coding-decoding problems
73. Data Sufficiency questions primarily test whether:
    (a) The given data is grammatically correct (b) The given data is sufficient to answer a question, without necessarily solving it fully (c) The question has no answer at all (d) Only numerical calculation skill
74. Seating arrangement puzzles are best solved by:
    (a) Guessing randomly (b) Systematically diagramming clues and eliminating impossible arrangements (c) Ignoring negative clues (d) Solving only the first clue
75. Inequality reasoning questions require candidates to:
    (a) Ignore the relational symbols entirely (b) Combine relational statements logically to determine valid conclusions (c) Assume all variables are equal (d) Only consider the first inequality
76. If A is B's father and B is C's mother, then A is C's:
    (a) Uncle (b) Grandfather (c) Brother (d) Cousin
77. Given: "All cats are animals. All animals are living things." Which conclusion necessarily follows?
    (a) All cats are living things (b) All living things are cats (c) No cats are living things (d) Some living things are not cats
78. If in a code, CAT is written as DBU, how is DOG written?
    (a) EPH (b) EPI (c) FQH (d) CNF
79. A judgment/assertion-reason question tests a candidate's ability to:
    (a) Evaluate whether a given reason correctly explains a given assertion (b) Perform arithmetic calculations (c) Identify grammatical errors (d) Read a bar graph
80. Which figure comes next in a simple non-verbal series showing a rotating shape by 90° each step?
    (a) The shape rotated a further 90° (b) The identical starting figure (c) A completely different shape (d) A mirrored figure only

Section E: English Language (20 Questions)

81. Identify the error: "Neither of the boys have completed their homework." The error is in:
    (a) "Neither...have" should be "Neither...has" (b) "boys" should be "boy" (c) "completed" should be "complete" (d) No error
82. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) He is going to school since morning. (b) He has been going to school since morning. (c) He go to school since morning. (d) He going to school since morning.
83. Fill in the blank: "She has been living here ___ 2015."
    (a) since (b) for (c) from (d) by
84. Choose the antonym of "Benevolent":
    (a) Kind (b) Malevolent (c) Generous (d) Charitable
85. In a Cloze Test, the primary skill being tested is:
    (a) Handwriting speed (b) Vocabulary, grammar, and contextual comprehension together (c) Only spelling (d) Only punctuation
86. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
    (a) "I bought apples, oranges and bananas." (b) "I bought apples oranges, and bananas." (c) "I bought, apples oranges and bananas." (d) "I bought apples oranges and, bananas."
87. Para jumbling questions are best solved by first identifying:
    (a) The shortest sentence (b) The topic/opening sentence and logical/pronoun references between sentences (c) The sentence with the most commas (d) The last sentence randomly
88. Choose the correct form: "If I ___ rich, I would travel the world."
    (a) am (b) was (c) were (d) will be
89. Choose the synonym of "Ephemeral":
    (a) Permanent (b) Transient (c) Eternal (d) Stable
90. Identify the error: "Each of the students have submitted their assignment." The error is in:
    (a) "have" should be "has" (b) "students" should be "student" (c) "submitted" should be "submit" (d) No error
91. Choose the correctly formed passive voice of "The chef cooked the meal.":
    (a) The meal was cooked by the chef (b) The meal is cooking by the chef (c) The meal cooks by the chef (d) The chef is cooked by the meal
92. Fill in the blank: "He is good ___ mathematics."
    (a) in (b) at (c) on (d) with
93. One-word substitution for "A place where birds are kept" is:
    (a) Aviary (b) Apiary (c) Aquarium (d) Menagerie
94. One-word substitution for "A person who can speak two languages" is:
    (a) Bilingual (b) Multilingual (c) Linguist (d) Translator
95. Choose the word closest in meaning to "Bibliophile":
    (a) A person who loves books (b) A person who fears books (c) A person who writes books only (d) A person who sells books
96. Identify the error in the sentence: "She don't like coffee." The error is in:
    (a) Subject-verb agreement (b) Tense (c) Preposition (d) Article usage
97. One-word substitution for "A person who studies the past through material remains" is:
    (a) Archaeologist (b) Historian (c) Anthropologist (d) Geologist
98. Choose the correct preposition: "He is afraid ___ spiders."
    (a) of (b) from (c) with (d) about
99. Choose the correct plural form of "Analysis":
    (a) Analysises (b) Analyses (c) Analysis's (d) Analysi
100. Identify the error: "He is one of the best player in the team." The error is in:
     (a) "player" should be "players" (b) "one" should be "some" (c) "best" should be "better" (d) No error

Answer Key

Section A: 1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(b) 11.(b) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Section B: 21.(c) 22.(b) 23.(b) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(c) 28.(b) 29.(a) 30.(b) 31.(b) 32.(b) 33.(c) 34.(c) 35.(c) 36.(b) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(b)

Section C: 41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(b) 44.(b) 45.(c) 46.(c) 47.(c) 48.(b) 49.(c) 50.(b) 51.(b) 52.(b) 53.(b) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(b) 58.(c) 59.(b) 60.(c)

Section D: 61.(b) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(a) 65.(b) 66.(a) 67.(b) 68.(b) 69.(b) 70.(b) 71.(b) 72.(b) 73.(b) 74.(b) 75.(b) 76.(b) 77.(a) 78.(a) 79.(a) 80.(a)

Section E: 81.(a) 82.(b) 83.(a) 84.(b) 85.(b) 86.(a) 87.(b) 88.(c) 89.(b) 90.(a) 91.(a) 92.(b) 93.(a) 94.(a) 95.(a) 96.(a) 97.(a) 98.(a) 99.(b) 100.(a)