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← Index: RRB JE Civil Engineering — Complete Study GuideChapter 16
Study Guide · Chapter 16

Full-Length Mock Test 2 — RRB JE CBT 2 Technical Abilities Pattern (100 MCQs)

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Section A: Building Materials and Construction (20 Questions)

  1. The setting time test for cement uses which apparatus?
    (a) Vicat apparatus (b) Los Angeles abrasion machine (c) CBR mould (d) Casagrande apparatus
  2. The initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be less than:
    (a) 30 minutes (b) 5 minutes (c) 10 hours (d) 1 minute
  3. The final setting time of OPC should not exceed:
    (a) 600 minutes (10 hours) (b) 30 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) 24 hours
  4. Fineness of cement is commonly tested using:
    (a) Blaine's air permeability method (b) Slump cone (c) Vicat apparatus only (d) Compression testing machine
  5. The soundness of cement (freedom from excessive free lime) is tested using:
    (a) Le Chatelier apparatus (b) Vicat apparatus (c) Slump cone (d) Sieve analysis
  6. Which of these is a hydraulic property of cement?
    (a) Ability to set and harden under water (b) Ability to burn easily (c) High electrical conductivity (d) High transparency
  7. Fine aggregate is generally defined as aggregate passing through a:
    (a) 4.75 mm IS sieve (b) 80 mm IS sieve (c) 300 mm IS sieve (d) 1 mm sieve exclusively with nothing coarser ever used
  8. Coarse aggregate is generally defined as aggregate retained on a:
    (a) 4.75 mm IS sieve (b) 0.15 mm IS sieve (c) 0.075 mm IS sieve (d) 100 mm IS sieve always
  9. A well-graded aggregate contains:
    (a) Particles of various sizes in proportions giving minimum voids (b) Only one uniform particle size (c) Only the largest available particle size (d) No fine particles at all
  10. Bulking of sand refers to:
    (a) The increase in volume of sand due to moisture content (b) The decrease in weight of sand when wet (c) The chemical decomposition of sand (d) The compaction of sand under load only
  11. A first-class brick should have a minimum compressive strength of approximately:
    (a) 10.5 N/mm² (b) 1 N/mm² (c) 100 N/mm² (d) 0.5 N/mm²
  12. The water absorption of a good quality brick should not exceed approximately:
    (a) 20 percent by weight (b) 90 percent (c) 0 percent, i.e., none whatsoever (d) 75 percent
  13. The "frog" of a brick is:
    (a) A depression on one face to form a key for mortar (b) A type of brick-laying tool (c) A defect caused by overburning (d) A type of clay used only in kiln construction
  14. Seasoning of timber is done primarily to:
    (a) Reduce moisture content and improve strength/durability (b) Increase moisture content deliberately (c) Add colour to timber (d) Increase weight for structural loading
  15. Which defect in timber refers to separation of fibres along the grain?
    (a) Shakes (b) Knots (c) Wane (d) Doatiness
  16. Distempering and painting of surfaces are done primarily to provide:
    (a) A protective and decorative surface finish (b) Structural load-bearing capacity (c) Waterproofing of foundations exclusively (d) Fire resistance with no decorative role at all
  17. Damp-proof courses (DPC) are provided in a building primarily to:
    (a) Prevent rising dampness from the ground into walls (b) Increase the compressive strength of walls (c) Reduce the self-weight of the structure (d) Improve the aesthetic appearance only
  18. English bond in brickwork is characterised by:
    (a) Alternating courses of headers and stretchers (b) Only headers in every course (c) Only stretchers in every course (d) Random placement with no defined pattern
  19. A lintel is a structural member provided:
    (a) Over openings such as doors and windows to support the wall above (b) Below the foundation exclusively (c) Only as a decorative moulding (d) Only inside a roof truss
  20. Efflorescence on brick masonry refers to:
    (a) A white deposit of soluble salts on the surface (b) A structural crack due to overloading (c) A type of brick bond (d) A waterproofing treatment applied deliberately

Section B: Surveying (20 Questions)

  1. Chain surveying is most suitable for areas that are:
    (a) Relatively small, open, and fairly level (b) Very large and heavily wooded exclusively (c) Entirely underwater (d) Always mountainous with no open ground
  2. A "well-conditioned" triangle in chain surveying has no angle less than approximately:
    (a) 30 degrees (b) 90 degrees (c) 1 degree (d) 179 degrees
  3. Offsets in chain surveying are measured:
    (a) Perpendicular (or occasionally oblique) from the chain line to an object (b) Only parallel to the chain line (c) Only vertically downward (d) Only at the very end of the survey
  4. The prismatic compass measures bearings with reference to:
    (a) Magnetic north (b) True south always (c) An arbitrary local reference with no fixed direction (d) The nearest building
  5. Local attraction in compass surveying refers to:
    (a) Disturbance of the magnetic needle by local magnetic materials (b) Attraction between two surveyors (c) A gravitational anomaly affecting chains (d) A property exclusive to plane tables
  6. A dumpy level is primarily used to determine:
    (a) Differences in elevation between points (b) Horizontal angles only (c) Magnetic bearings (d) Distances directly with no angle or elevation function
  7. The line of collimation in levelling refers to:
    (a) The line of sight through the telescope when correctly focused (b) The bubble tube axis exclusively (c) The vertical axis of the instrument (d) The base of the tripod
  8. A back sight in levelling is taken on a point of:
    (a) Known elevation, to determine the height of instrument (b) Unknown elevation exclusively (c) A random point with no bearing on levelling computations (d) Only the final benchmark of the survey
  9. A change point in levelling is used when:
    (a) The instrument must be shifted to continue levelling over a distance/obstruction (b) The survey is being abandoned (c) Only at the start of the survey (d) Only when no benchmark exists anywhere)
  10. Contour lines on a map represent:
    (a) Points of equal elevation (b) Political boundaries (c) Property boundaries (d) Underground utility lines exclusively
  11. A contour interval is:
    (a) The vertical distance between two consecutive contour lines (b) The horizontal distance between two points on a map (c) The scale of the map (d) The area enclosed by a single contour
  12. Closely spaced contour lines on a map indicate:
    (a) Steep ground slope (b) Flat/level ground (c) A water body always (d) An error in surveying with no real meaning
  13. A theodolite is primarily used to measure:
    (a) Horizontal and vertical angles precisely (b) Only linear distances (c) Only soil properties (d) Only magnetic declination
  14. "Transiting" a theodolite telescope means:
    (a) Revolving it through 180 degrees about its horizontal axis (b) Moving the entire instrument to a new station (c) Adjusting only the tripod height (d) Reading the vertical circle without moving the telescope
  15. Traversing in surveying refers to:
    (a) Establishing a series of connected survey lines with measured lengths and angles (b) A single isolated measurement with no connection to other points (c) Only vertical measurement of building heights (d) A method used exclusively underwater
  16. Which surveying method involves establishing points using intersecting rays without measuring distances on the ground directly, sketching directly on the field board?
    (a) Plane table surveying (b) Chain surveying exclusively (c) Levelling exclusively (d) EDM traversing exclusively with no plane table use
  17. Tacheometric surveying is primarily used for:
    (a) Rapid determination of horizontal distance and elevation using stadia readings (b) Only determining magnetic declination (c) Only determining soil bearing capacity (d) Only measuring rainfall
  18. A "bench mark" in levelling is:
    (a) A point of known and fixed elevation used as a reference (b) A point of unknown elevation (c) The lowest point on a survey site always (d) A purely decorative marker with no elevation significance
  19. Curvature and refraction corrections in levelling are applied because:
    (a) The Earth's curvature and atmospheric refraction affect long sight readings (b) The instrument is always defective (c) The staff is always incorrectly marked (d) Local attraction always affects levelling
  20. The reduced level (RL) of a point is:
    (a) Its elevation with respect to a common datum (b) Its horizontal distance from the origin (c) Its magnetic bearing (d) Its area on the map

Section C: Concrete Technology, RCC, and Theory of Structures (20 Questions)

  1. The water-cement ratio law, relating strength to water-cement ratio, was propounded by:
    (a) Abrams (b) Newton (c) Darcy (d) Bernoulli
  2. As the water-cement ratio increases (within a normal range), the compressive strength of concrete generally:
    (a) Decreases (b) Increases indefinitely (c) Remains exactly constant always (d) Becomes negative
  3. Workability of fresh concrete is commonly measured using the:
    (a) Slump test (b) Vicat apparatus (c) Le Chatelier apparatus (d) Los Angeles abrasion test
  4. Segregation in concrete refers to:
    (a) Separation of coarse aggregate from the mortar matrix (b) Uniform distribution of all ingredients (c) The hardening process of cement (d) The curing process exclusively
  5. Bleeding in concrete refers to:
    (a) Rising of excess water to the surface of freshly placed concrete (b) Cracking due to overloading (c) A curing technique (d) A reinforcement corrosion process
  6. Curing of concrete is done primarily to:
    (a) Maintain adequate moisture and temperature for hydration (b) Speed up the initial setting time drastically (c) Reduce the cement content required (d) Colour the surface of concrete
  7. The minimum grade of concrete typically specified for RCC work (per general practice) is:
    (a) M20 (b) M5 (c) M100 (d) M1
  8. In limit state design, the partial safety factor for concrete is commonly taken as:
    (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 5.0 (d) 0
  9. In limit state design, the partial safety factor for steel reinforcement is commonly taken as:
    (a) 1.15 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 5.0
  10. The neutral axis of a beam under bending is the axis where:
    (a) Bending stress is zero (b) Bending stress is maximum tensile (c) Bending stress is maximum compressive (d) Shear stress is always zero
  11. The bending moment at a simply supported beam's supports (with no overhang) is:
    (a) Zero (b) Maximum (c) Undefined (d) Always negative
  12. The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam under a central point load W and span L is:
    (a) WL/4 (b) WL/2 (c) WL²/8 (d) WL²/2
  13. The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam under uniformly distributed load w over span L is:
    (a) wL²/8 (b) wL/4 (c) wL²/2 (d) wL/8
  14. Shear force at the centre of a simply supported beam under a central point load (just to either side) is:
    (a) Equal in magnitude to half the point load (b) Zero always (c) Equal to the full point load always (d) Undefined
  15. The modulus of elasticity of a material relates:
    (a) Stress to strain within the elastic limit (b) Shear force to bending moment (c) Load to time (d) Temperature to volume only
  16. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of:
    (a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain (b) Stress to strain (c) Load to area (d) Bending moment to shear force
  17. A cantilever beam is characterised by:
    (a) Fixed support at one end and free at the other (b) Simple supports at both ends (c) Fixed supports at both ends always (d) No support at all
  18. The maximum bending moment in a cantilever of length L under a point load W at the free end occurs at:
    (a) The fixed support (b) The free end (c) The mid-span exclusively (d) It does not have a defined maximum
  19. Effective span of a simply supported beam is generally taken as:
    (a) The clear span plus the effective depth, or centre-to-centre of supports, whichever is smaller (b) Always the clear span plus twice the effective depth regardless of support type (c) Always the full length of the beam including overhangs (d) An arbitrary value with no code basis
  20. Doubly reinforced concrete beams are used primarily when:
    (a) The section is restricted in depth and cannot resist the moment with tension steel alone (b) No tension steel is needed at all (c) The beam is not subject to any bending moment (d) The concrete grade is unusually high with no other justification

Section D: Geotechnical, Hydraulics, and Environmental Engineering (20 Questions)

  1. The plasticity index of a soil is defined as:
    (a) Liquid limit minus plastic limit (b) Liquid limit plus plastic limit (c) Shrinkage limit minus liquid limit (d) Plastic limit divided by liquid limit
  2. The standard Proctor compaction test determines:
    (a) The optimum moisture content and maximum dry density of soil (b) The permeability of soil directly (c) The bearing capacity of soil directly (d) The liquid limit of soil
  3. Permeability of soil is commonly determined in the laboratory using the:
    (a) Constant head or falling head permeameter (b) Vicat apparatus (c) CBR test apparatus (d) Los Angeles abrasion machine
  4. The California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test is primarily used to evaluate:
    (a) The strength of subgrade soil for pavement design (b) The compressive strength of concrete (c) The setting time of cement (d) The permeability of clay exclusively
  5. Consolidation of soil refers to:
    (a) Gradual reduction in volume due to expulsion of pore water under sustained load (b) Instantaneous elastic compression (c) A chemical reaction with cement (d) An increase in soil volume under load
  6. Bernoulli's theorem, applied to fluid flow, is fundamentally a statement of conservation of:
    (a) Energy (b) Mass alone with no energy consideration (c) Electric charge (d) Magnetic flux
  7. A Venturimeter is used to measure:
    (a) Rate of flow of fluid in a pipe (b) Viscosity of a fluid (c) Density of a solid (d) Soil permeability
  8. An open channel is characterised by flow with:
    (a) A free surface exposed to atmospheric pressure (b) No free surface at all, always fully enclosed (c) Zero velocity everywhere (d) Only vertical flow direction
  9. The most economical (efficient) channel section, for a given area, minimises:
    (a) The wetted perimeter (b) The flow velocity (c) The channel width only (d) The channel depth only
  10. Manning's formula is commonly used to compute:
    (a) Velocity of flow in open channels (b) Compressive strength of concrete (c) Setting time of cement (d) Bearing capacity of soil
  11. Specific yield of an aquifer refers to:
    (a) The volume of water that can be drained by gravity from a unit volume of saturated aquifer (b) The total porosity of the aquifer (c) The permeability coefficient (d) The depth of the water table only
  12. Which type of irrigation canal typically carries water directly off-taking from a river with no major storage?
    (a) A diversion (inundation-type or direct) canal fed from a barrage/weir (b) A canal with no water at all (c) A canal used only for drainage (d) An underground canal exclusively
  13. The duty of water in irrigation engineering refers to:
    (a) The area that can be irrigated by a unit discharge of water over the base period (b) The velocity of canal flow (c) The type of crop grown exclusively (d) The depth of the canal bed
  14. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is a measure of:
    (a) The oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water (b) The total dissolved solids in water (c) The pH of water (d) The hardness of water
  15. Which of the following is a commonly used method of disinfecting drinking water?
    (a) Chlorination (b) Sedimentation alone with no chemical treatment (c) Screening alone (d) Aeration alone with no chemical addition
  16. A septic tank is primarily used for:
    (a) On-site treatment/settling of sewage in areas without a sewer network (b) Storage of drinking water exclusively (c) Storage of construction materials (d) Measurement of rainfall
  17. The term "sludge" in wastewater treatment refers to:
    (a) The settled solid matter separated during treatment (b) The clear treated effluent (c) The disinfecting chemical used (d) The pipe network itself
  18. Which gas is commonly associated with anaerobic digestion of sludge, used as a fuel source?
    (a) Methane (biogas) (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen exclusively with no methane produced (d) Chlorine
  19. Air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic precipitators are primarily used to remove:
    (a) Particulate matter from flue gases (b) Dissolved salts from water (c) Pathogens from drinking water exclusively (d) Noise from construction equipment
  20. The primary purpose of a settling/sedimentation tank in water treatment is to:
    (a) Remove suspended solids by gravity settling (b) Add disinfectant chemicals (c) Increase the water's temperature (d) Aerate the water exclusively with no solids removal

Section E: General Awareness, Computer Applications, and Current Affairs (20 Questions)

  1. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is primarily responsible for:
    (a) Formulating and publishing Indian Standards, including for construction materials (b) Regulating railway fares exclusively (c) Managing national highways construction exclusively (d) Issuing passports
  2. Which ministry administers the Indian Railways, of which RRBs form a recruitment body?
    (a) Ministry of Railways (b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (c) Ministry of Urban Development exclusively (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. RRB stands for:
    (a) Railway Recruitment Board (b) Regional Railway Bureau (c) Road and Rail Board (d) Railway Regulation Body
  4. A spreadsheet application such as MS Excel is primarily used for:
    (a) Organising data in rows/columns and performing calculations (b) Word processing documents exclusively (c) Creating slide presentations exclusively (d) Managing email exclusively
  5. In computer terminology, RAM stands for:
    (a) Random Access Memory (b) Read Access Module (c) Rapid Application Mode (d) Remote Access Memory
  6. A computer's CPU is often referred to as the:
    (a) Brain/central processing unit of the computer (b) Storage device only (c) Input device only (d) Output device only
  7. An operating system's primary function is to:
    (a) Manage computer hardware and software resources (b) Only display images (c) Only play audio files (d) Only connect to the internet with no other function
  8. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
    (a) Keyboard (b) Monitor (c) Printer (d) Speaker
  9. A firewall in computer networking is primarily used to:
    (a) Monitor and control incoming/outgoing network traffic for security (b) Increase internet speed only (c) Store large files only (d) Print documents
  10. Which Indian institution is the apex body for standardising engineering education and technical institutes?
    (a) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Election Commission of India (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  11. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is primarily responsible for:
    (a) Development and maintenance of National Highways (b) Railway track maintenance (c) Airport construction exclusively (d) Urban water supply
  12. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for river water management and dam safety oversight in India at the national level?
    (a) Central Water Commission (b) Election Commission (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Union Public Service Commission
  13. Dedicated Freight Corridors being developed by Indian Railways are primarily intended to:
    (a) Separate freight traffic from passenger traffic for efficiency (b) Carry passengers exclusively with no freight (c) Replace all existing railway lines entirely (d) Serve only international freight
  14. Which of the following is an example of renewable energy infrastructure relevant to civil/infrastructure engineering?
    (a) Solar power plants (b) Coal-fired thermal plants exclusively (c) Only nuclear plants (d) Only diesel generators
  15. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana is primarily aimed at:
    (a) Providing affordable housing (b) Constructing national highways exclusively (c) Building only industrial townships (d) Constructing only government offices
  16. Metro rail systems in Indian cities are generally constructed and operated with involvement of:
    (a) State/central joint venture corporations (e.g., DMRC-model entities) (b) Only private foreign firms with no government role (c) No government involvement whatsoever (d) Only municipal sanitation departments
  17. Green building rating systems in India, such as GRIHA and IGBC, primarily assess:
    (a) Environmental performance and sustainability of buildings (b) Only the cost of construction (c) Only the aesthetic design (d) Only the structural steel grade used
  18. Smart City Mission in India primarily focuses on:
    (a) Sustainable and citizen-friendly urban development supported by technology (b) Rural agricultural development exclusively (c) Only defence infrastructure (d) Only railway electrification
  19. Which organisation is primarily responsible for setting Indian building/construction codes, including the National Building Code?
    (a) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Election Commission (d) Ministry of External Affairs
  20. Sustainable construction practices commonly emphasise:
    (a) Resource efficiency and reduced environmental impact (b) Maximum material wastage (c) Ignoring energy efficiency entirely (d) Avoiding any use of recycled materials

Answer Key with Explanations

1.(a) The Vicat apparatus tests cement setting times.

2.(a) Initial setting time should not be less than 30 minutes.

3.(a) Final setting time should not exceed about 600 minutes (10 hours).

4.(a) Blaine's air permeability method tests cement fineness.

5.(a) Le Chatelier apparatus tests cement soundness.

6.(a) Hydraulic cement sets/hardens under water.

7.(a) Fine aggregate passes a 4.75 mm sieve.

8.(a) Coarse aggregate is retained on a 4.75 mm sieve.

9.(a) Well-graded aggregate has varied sizes giving minimum voids.

10.(a) Bulking is volume increase in sand due to moisture.

11.(a) First-class bricks have roughly 10.5 N/mm² minimum strength.

12.(a) Good bricks should not exceed about 20 percent water absorption.

13.(a) The frog is a depression forming a mortar key.

14.(a) Seasoning reduces moisture and improves timber strength/durability.

15.(a) Shakes are fibre separations along the grain.

16.(a) Painting/distempering gives protective and decorative finish.

17.(a) DPC prevents rising dampness into walls.

18.(a) English bond alternates header and stretcher courses.

19.(a) Lintels support walls over openings.

20.(a) Efflorescence is a white soluble-salt deposit.

21.(a) Chain surveying suits small, open, fairly level areas.

22.(a) Well-conditioned triangles have no angle under about 30 degrees.

23.(a) Offsets are measured perpendicular/oblique from the chain line.

24.(a) Prismatic compass bearings reference magnetic north.

25.(a) Local attraction disturbs the compass needle via local magnetism.

26.(a) Dumpy levels determine elevation differences.

27.(a) The line of collimation is the correctly focused line of sight.

28.(a) A back sight is taken on a known-elevation point.

29.(a) Change points allow instrument shifting during levelling.

30.(a) Contours represent points of equal elevation.

31.(a) Contour interval is the vertical distance between consecutive contours.

32.(a) Closely spaced contours indicate steep slopes.

33.(a) Theodolites measure horizontal/vertical angles precisely.

34.(a) Transiting revolves the telescope 180 degrees about its horizontal axis.

35.(a) Traversing establishes connected lines with measured lengths/angles.

36.(a) Plane table surveying uses field sketching with intersecting rays.

37.(a) Tacheometry rapidly determines distance/elevation via stadia readings.

38.(a) A bench mark is a fixed, known-elevation reference point.

39.(a) Curvature/refraction corrections address Earth curvature and atmospheric refraction on long sights.

40.(a) Reduced level is elevation relative to a common datum.

41.(a) Abrams propounded the water-cement ratio law.

42.(a) Higher water-cement ratio generally decreases compressive strength.

43.(a) The slump test measures workability.

44.(a) Segregation separates coarse aggregate from mortar.

45.(a) Bleeding is water rising to the concrete surface.

46.(a) Curing maintains moisture/temperature for hydration.

47.(a) M20 is a commonly specified minimum RCC grade.

48.(a) Concrete's partial safety factor is commonly 1.5.

49.(a) Steel's partial safety factor is commonly 1.15.

50.(a) The neutral axis has zero bending stress.

51.(a) Bending moment is zero at simple supports with no overhang.

52.(a) Max BM for central point load is WL/4.

53.(a) Max BM for UDL is wL²/8.

54.(a) Shear near midspan under central load is half the point load.

55.(a) Modulus of elasticity relates stress to strain elastically.

56.(a) Poisson's ratio is lateral strain to longitudinal strain.

57.(a) A cantilever is fixed at one end, free at the other.

58.(a) Max BM in a cantilever with end load occurs at the fixed support.

59.(a) Effective span is clear span plus effective depth, or c/c of supports, whichever is smaller.

60.(a) Doubly reinforced beams suit depth-restricted sections.

61.(a) Plasticity index is liquid limit minus plastic limit.

62.(a) Proctor test finds optimum moisture content and max dry density.

63.(a) Permeameters (constant/falling head) measure soil permeability.

64.(a) CBR evaluates subgrade strength for pavement design.

65.(a) Consolidation is gradual volume reduction from pore water expulsion.

66.(a) Bernoulli's theorem states energy conservation in fluid flow.

67.(a) A Venturimeter measures pipe flow rate.

68.(a) Open channel flow has a free surface.

69.(a) The most economical section minimises wetted perimeter.

70.(a) Manning's formula computes open channel flow velocity.

71.(a) Specific yield is gravity-drainable water volume from saturated aquifer.

72.(a) Diversion canals off-take directly from a river via barrage/weir.

73.(a) Duty of water is area irrigated per unit discharge over the base period.

74.(a) BOD measures oxygen needed to decompose organic matter.

75.(a) Chlorination is a common disinfection method.

76.(a) Septic tanks provide on-site sewage treatment/settling.

77.(a) Sludge is settled solid matter from treatment.

78.(a) Methane/biogas arises from anaerobic sludge digestion.

79.(a) Electrostatic precipitators remove particulates from flue gases.

80.(a) Sedimentation tanks remove suspended solids by gravity.

81.(a) BIS formulates Indian Standards including for construction materials.

82.(a) Indian Railways is administered by the Ministry of Railways.

83.(a) RRB stands for Railway Recruitment Board.

84.(a) Spreadsheets organise data and perform calculations.

85.(a) RAM stands for Random Access Memory.

86.(a) The CPU is the computer's central processing unit/brain.

87.(a) An OS manages hardware/software resources.

88.(a) A keyboard is an input device.

89.(a) A firewall monitors/controls network traffic for security.

90.(a) AICTE is the apex technical education standardising body.

91.(a) NHAI develops/maintains National Highways.

92.(a) The Central Water Commission oversees river water management/dam safety at the national level.

93.(a) Dedicated Freight Corridors separate freight from passenger traffic.

94.(a) Solar power plants are renewable energy infrastructure.

95.(a) PMAY aims at affordable housing.

96.(a) Metro systems typically involve state/central joint venture corporations.

97.(a) GRIHA/IGBC assess environmental sustainability performance of buildings.

98.(a) Smart City Mission focuses on sustainable, tech-supported urban development.

99.(a) BIS sets Indian building/construction codes including the National Building Code.

100.(a) Sustainable construction emphasises resource efficiency and reduced environmental impact.

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