Full-Length Mock Test 5 — RRB JE CBT 2 Technical Abilities Pattern (100 MCQs)
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Section A: Building Materials and Construction (20 Questions)
- The IS code that broadly covers plain and reinforced concrete practice in India is commonly referenced as:
(a) IS 456 (b) IS 800 (c) IS 1200 (d) IS 383 - The IS code that broadly covers general construction in steel is commonly referenced as:
(a) IS 800 (b) IS 456 (c) IS 2720 (d) IS 1077 - IS 383 primarily deals with specifications for:
(a) Coarse and fine aggregates for concrete (b) Structural steel sections (c) Timber grading (d) Bitumen grading - A "mortar" used in masonry is a mixture of:
(a) Cement or lime, sand, and water (b) Only water and sand with no binder (c) Only coarse aggregate and water (d) Only steel and water - Lime mortar, compared to cement mortar, generally has:
(a) Slower strength gain and lower ultimate strength (b) Faster strength gain and always higher strength (c) No practical difference whatsoever (d) No use in construction at all - The term "grouting" refers to:
(a) Injecting a fluid cement/chemical mixture into gaps/voids to fill and strengthen them (b) A method of timber seasoning (c) A method of brick firing (d) A method of steel rolling - A "false ceiling" is typically installed to:
(a) Conceal services and improve acoustics/aesthetics below the main structural ceiling (b) Increase the structural load capacity of the roof (c) Replace the main roof entirely (d) Serve only as a fire hazard with no functional benefit - Which of these best describes "vitrified tiles" commonly used for flooring?
(a) Dense, low-porosity ceramic tiles with high strength and low water absorption (b) Untreated raw clay tiles with high porosity (c) Pure glass sheets with no ceramic content (d) Pure wood veneer tiles - Aluminium, as a building material, is valued for its:
(a) Light weight and corrosion resistance (b) Extremely high density (c) High susceptibility to rusting (d) Poor workability - PVC (polyvinyl chloride) pipes are commonly used in construction for:
(a) Water supply and drainage piping (b) Structural load-bearing columns (c) Reinforcement of concrete beams (d) Roofing tiles exclusively - "Terrazzo" flooring is made by:
(a) Embedding marble/stone chips in a cement matrix and polishing the surface (b) Laying plain unpolished concrete only (c) Laying untreated raw stone slabs only (d) Using only wood particles with no stone content - A "false floor" (raised access floor), often used in computer server rooms, primarily allows:
(a) Concealed routing of cables/services beneath the floor level (b) Increased structural dead load with no service routing benefit (c) Replacement of the main structural slab entirely (d) Elimination of the need for any flooring finish - Weep holes provided in retaining walls are primarily meant to:
(a) Relieve hydrostatic pressure by allowing water drainage (b) Increase water pressure behind the wall deliberately (c) Serve a decorative function only (d) Replace the need for backfill drainage material entirely - A construction joint in concrete work is provided primarily to:
(a) Accommodate planned interruptions in concrete placement (b) Deliberately weaken the structure with no functional purpose (c) Replace the need for reinforcement (d) Serve only an architectural decorative role - An expansion joint in a long structure is provided primarily to accommodate:
(a) Thermal expansion/contraction movements (b) Vertical structural loads exclusively (c) Wind loads exclusively with no thermal consideration (d) Seismic loads exclusively with no thermal consideration - A "sun shade" (chajja) projecting over a window is provided primarily to:
(a) Protect the opening from direct sun/rain (b) Provide the main structural support of the wall (c) Replace the need for a lintel (d) Serve only as ornamentation with no practical function - Fire-resistant construction materials are selected primarily based on their:
(a) Ability to withstand high temperature without rapid structural failure (b) Colour and aesthetic appeal alone (c) Cost alone with no fire performance consideration (d) Water absorption alone - Acoustic (sound) insulation in building construction is primarily achieved using:
(a) Materials/construction methods that absorb or block sound transmission (b) Materials that amplify sound transmission (c) Only glass surfaces with no other material (d) Only bare concrete with no treatment - "Curtain wall" construction in high-rise buildings refers to:
(a) A non-load-bearing exterior wall system, often glass/aluminium, attached to the structural frame (b) The main load-bearing wall carrying all building loads (c) A temporary construction barrier only (d) An interior partition wall exclusively - Precast concrete construction involves:
(a) Casting concrete elements in a factory/yard and later transporting/assembling them on site (b) Casting concrete only in its final position with no prior fabrication (c) Using no concrete at all (d) Casting only temporary formwork elements
Section B: Surveying (20 Questions)
- In EDM (Electronic Distance Measurement), distance is typically computed from the:
(a) Travel time or phase difference of a transmitted electromagnetic wave (b) Direct manual tape reading only (c) Magnetic bearing only (d) Barometric pressure difference only - A "prism" used with a total station/EDM instrument serves to:
(a) Reflect the transmitted signal back to the instrument (b) Amplify the operator's voice (c) Filter sunlight for the operator's eyes only (d) Measure soil moisture - Remote sensing images are commonly classified/analysed using computer software to identify:
(a) Land cover/land use categories (b) Only cement grade (c) Only cement setting time (d) Only concrete slump value - A GPS receiver determines its position by measuring:
(a) The time taken for signals to arrive from multiple satellites (b) The receiver's internal clock speed alone with no satellite signal (c) The colour of the sky (d) The local magnetic field strength - A "control network" densified using GPS is subsequently used as reference for:
(a) Detailed ground surveys and mapping work (b) Only weather prediction (c) Only currency valuation (d) Only census data collection - The horizontal control for a large engineering project (e.g., a dam or highway) is generally established using:
(a) A network of precisely surveyed control points (traverse/triangulation/GPS) (b) A single arbitrary guess point with no network (c) Only a compass with no other instrument (d) Only aerial photographs with no ground control at all - Vertical control for an engineering project is generally established using:
(a) A network of benchmarks tied to a levelling network (b) Only a compass (c) Only a theodolite with no levelling instrument (d) Only GPS with no levelling verification at all - "Setting out" (layout) of a building on site involves:
(a) Transferring the building's plan dimensions accurately to the ground using survey instruments (b) Only a visual estimate with no instrument use (c) Only architectural drawing with no field work (d) Only soil testing with no dimensional layout - Batter boards used in building layout are primarily used to:
(a) Mark and maintain reference lines/levels for excavation and foundation work (b) Support the roof structure permanently (c) Replace the need for foundation concrete (d) Serve as permanent structural walls - A "datum" in surveying/levelling refers to:
(a) A reference level (commonly mean sea level) from which elevations are measured (b) A type of surveying instrument (c) A type of soil classification (d) A unit of angular measurement - Mean Sea Level (MSL), commonly used as a datum in India, is established through long-term observation at:
(a) Tide gauge stations (b) Cement testing laboratories (c) Concrete batching plants (d) Steel rolling mills - The Survey of India is the national body primarily responsible for:
(a) Topographic mapping and geodetic control of the country (b) Currency printing (c) Railway ticket booking (d) Passport issuance - A "toposheet" published by the Survey of India typically shows:
(a) Topographic features, contours, and reference grids of an area (b) Only political boundaries with no topographic detail (c) Only railway timetables (d) Only weather forecasts - "Geodetic surveying" differs from "plane surveying" primarily because it accounts for:
(a) The curvature of the Earth over large areas (b) Only very small local areas with no curvature consideration (c) Only underground features (d) Only magnetic properties of rocks - Plane surveying is generally considered acceptable (with negligible error) for areas up to approximately:
(a) A few hundred square kilometres (b) The entire globe regardless of size (c) Only a single square metre (d) Only underwater areas - A "azimuth" of a line, in surveying, refers to its:
(a) Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a reference meridian (b) Vertical angle from the horizontal (c) Length in metres (d) Elevation above datum - Total station data is commonly downloaded and processed using:
(a) Computer-aided survey/mapping software (b) Only manual hand-plotting with no software (c) Only a typewriter (d) Only a calculator with no data transfer capability - Drone-based (UAV) surveying has become increasingly used in infrastructure projects primarily because it offers:
(a) Rapid, relatively low-cost aerial data capture over large/inaccessible areas (b) No practical advantage over ground survey (c) Only underwater capability with no aerial use (d) Complete replacement of all ground control requirements - LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology is used in surveying primarily to:
(a) Generate precise 3D point-cloud data of terrain/structures using laser pulses (b) Measure only soil chemical composition (c) Measure only cement fineness (d) Measure only water hardness - Accurate as-built surveys after construction completion are important primarily to:
(a) Document the actual constructed dimensions/positions for records and future reference (b) Replace the need for any design drawings retroactively (c) Serve no practical purpose after construction (d) Only satisfy aesthetic curiosity with no engineering value
Section C: Concrete Technology, RCC, and Theory of Structures (20 Questions)
- Ready-mix concrete (RMC) is concrete that is:
(a) Batched and mixed at a central plant and transported to site in a ready-to-use state (b) Always mixed manually on site with no plant involvement (c) Never allowed to be transported (d) Composed only of cement with no aggregate - The primary reason self-compacting concrete (SCC) is valued is its ability to:
(a) Flow and consolidate under its own weight without mechanical vibration (b) Set instantly with no flow at all (c) Eliminate the need for any reinforcement (d) Replace the need for formwork entirely - Fibre-reinforced concrete incorporates short discrete fibres primarily to improve:
(a) Toughness, crack control, and post-cracking behaviour (b) Only colour and aesthetics (c) Only setting time with no mechanical benefit (d) Only cost, always making it cheaper than plain concrete - High-performance concrete is generally characterised by:
(a) Enhanced strength, durability, and/or workability compared to conventional concrete (b) Lower strength than conventional concrete always (c) Complete absence of cement (d) Use only in decorative, non-structural applications - The "workability" of concrete is influenced significantly by:
(a) Water content, aggregate grading, and admixtures (b) Only the colour of the cement (c) Only the age of the formwork (d) Only the ambient humidity, with no other factor - A "cold joint" in concrete construction arises when:
(a) A time gap between successive concrete pours causes incomplete bonding between layers (b) Concrete is poured continuously with no gap at all (c) Concrete is cured using ice deliberately (d) Reinforcement is entirely omitted - Reinforcement detailing drawings typically specify:
(a) Bar diameters, spacing, bending shapes, and cover requirements (b) Only the architectural colour scheme (c) Only the electrical wiring layout (d) Only the plumbing layout - The "lever arm" in a singly reinforced concrete beam section refers to the distance between:
(a) The resultant compressive force and the resultant tensile force (b) The top and bottom of the formwork only (c) Two adjacent stirrups only (d) The beam's two supports - In truss analysis, a member carrying zero force under a particular loading condition is called a:
(a) Zero-force member (b) Redundant member always regardless of force (c) Primary member always (d) Compression member always regardless of computed force - A "statically determinate" structure is one where:
(a) All reactions/internal forces can be found using equations of static equilibrium alone (b) Reactions can never be determined by any method (c) Equilibrium equations are irrelevant (d) The structure has no supports at all - A "statically indeterminate" structure requires, in addition to equilibrium equations:
(a) Compatibility/deformation conditions to solve for all unknowns (b) No additional conditions at all (c) Only a visual estimate (d) Only knowledge of the structure's colour - The "degree of static indeterminacy" of a structure indicates:
(a) The number of extra unknowns beyond what equilibrium equations alone can solve (b) The total weight of the structure (c) The total number of joints only (d) The structure's total cost - A propped cantilever beam has:
(a) One fixed support and one simple/roller support (b) Two fixed supports only (c) No supports at all (d) Two free ends with no support - The "influence line" for a structural quantity (e.g., reaction or bending moment) shows:
(a) The variation of that quantity as a unit load moves across the structure (b) The variation of temperature across the structure (c) The colour variation across the structure (d) The variation of concrete grade across the structure - Which of the following best defines "elastic limit" of a material?
(a) The maximum stress up to which the material returns to its original shape upon unloading (b) The stress at which the material always fractures immediately (c) The stress at zero load (d) The stress at which colour change occurs - "Ultimate tensile strength" of a material refers to:
(a) The maximum stress the material can withstand in tension before failure (b) The stress at zero strain (c) The stress at which the material becomes perfectly elastic (d) The compressive strength exclusively, with no relation to tension - "Ductility" of a material refers to its ability to:
(a) Undergo significant plastic deformation before fracture (b) Fracture immediately with no deformation (c) Resist any deformation whatsoever (d) Change colour under stress - "Brittleness" is generally considered the opposite property of:
(a) Ductility (b) Density (c) Colour (d) Cost - The "factor of safety" in structural design is defined broadly as the ratio of:
(a) Ultimate/failure strength to the permissible/working stress (b) Cost of material to labour cost (c) Dead load to live load exclusively (d) Height of the structure to its width - Which load combination is typically considered in structural design, in addition to dead and live loads, for tall/exposed structures?
(a) Wind load and/or seismic load (b) Only decorative load with no structural relevance (c) Only paint load (d) No additional load is ever considered
Section D: Geotechnical, Hydraulics, and Environmental Engineering (20 Questions)
- The "effective stress" concept in soil mechanics, formulated by Terzaghi, relates total stress, pore water pressure, and:
(a) Effective stress carried by the soil skeleton (b) Only the colour of the soil (c) Only the plasticity index (d) Only the shrinkage limit - Effective stress in a saturated soil increases when:
(a) Pore water pressure decreases, at constant total stress (b) Pore water pressure increases at constant total stress (c) Total stress and pore pressure both increase by exactly equal amounts always (d) The soil becomes fully submerged with no drainage - The "quick sand" (quick condition) phenomenon occurs when:
(a) Upward seepage pressure equals or exceeds the submerged unit weight of soil, causing near-zero effective stress (b) Soil is completely dry with no water at all (c) Soil is compacted to maximum density (d) Soil has zero permeability - A "flow net" in seepage analysis consists of:
(a) Flow lines and equipotential lines drawn to represent seepage through soil (b) Only contour lines of ground elevation (c) Only property boundary lines (d) Only electrical wiring diagrams - Direct shear test and triaxial test are laboratory methods used to determine:
(a) Shear strength parameters (cohesion and angle of internal friction) of soil (b) The setting time of cement (c) The slump of concrete (d) The compressive strength of bricks - The angle of internal friction is a shear strength parameter primarily significant for:
(a) Cohesionless soils like sand (b) Pure water with no soil content (c) Steel reinforcement bars (d) Cement paste exclusively - Cohesion as a shear strength parameter is primarily significant for:
(a) Clayey soils (b) Clean, cohesionless gravel (c) Pure water (d) Steel sections - A "slip circle" (or failure surface) analysis is commonly used to assess the stability of:
(a) Slopes and embankments (b) Cement setting time (c) Concrete slump (d) Brick water absorption - The factor of safety against slope failure is defined as the ratio of:
(a) Resisting (shear strength) forces to disturbing (driving) forces along the failure surface (b) Cost of construction to cost of maintenance (c) Height of slope to its base width only (d) Rainfall to evaporation - A well-designed drainage system for a slope/embankment primarily helps to:
(a) Reduce pore water pressure and improve stability (b) Increase pore water pressure deliberately (c) Increase the risk of slope failure deliberately (d) Serve no stability function whatsoever - In pipe flow, "head loss due to friction" is commonly estimated using formulas such as:
(a) Darcy-Weisbach or Hazen-Williams equations (b) Only Bernoulli's equation with no friction term (c) Only Newton's second law with no fluid consideration (d) Only Ohm's law - "Minor losses" in pipe flow refer to energy losses due to:
(a) Fittings, bends, valves, and sudden changes in cross-section (b) Only friction along a straight uniform pipe (c) Only gravitational potential energy (d) Only atmospheric pressure changes - A centrifugal pump is commonly used to:
(a) Lift/transport water using rotational kinetic energy imparted by an impeller (b) Measure water flow rate only (c) Purify water chemically (d) Test soil permeability - The "specific speed" of a pump/turbine is a parameter used primarily to:
(a) Classify/select the appropriate type of pump or turbine for given conditions (b) Measure water hardness (c) Measure cement fineness (d) Measure concrete slump - A Pelton wheel is a type of:
(a) Impulse hydraulic turbine (b) Centrifugal pump exclusively (c) Reciprocating pump exclusively (d) Positive displacement pump exclusively - A Francis turbine is classified as a:
(a) Reaction hydraulic turbine (b) Impulse turbine exclusively (c) Positive displacement pump (d) Centrifugal compressor exclusively - Rainwater harvesting structures are primarily intended to:
(a) Collect and store/recharge rainwater for beneficial use (b) Increase surface runoff pollution deliberately (c) Prevent any groundwater recharge (d) Replace the need for any water supply system entirely - The purpose of a "detention pond" in urban stormwater management is to:
(a) Temporarily store stormwater runoff and release it gradually, reducing peak flow (b) Permanently store water with no release at all (c) Increase peak flow downstream deliberately (d) Serve no hydraulic function whatsoever - Which of the following is a common indicator used to assess microbial contamination of drinking water?
(a) Presence of coliform bacteria (b) Presence of dissolved calcium only (c) Presence of dissolved oxygen only (d) Water colour alone with no microbial testing - Integrated solid waste management typically prioritises, in order, approaches such as:
(a) Reduce, reuse, recycle, and then safe disposal of remaining waste (b) Only landfilling with no other approach considered (c) Only incineration with no other approach considered (d) Ignoring waste generation entirely
Section E: General Awareness, Computer Applications, and Current Affairs (20 Questions)
- Which of the following best describes India's "Bharatmala Pariyojana"?
(a) A major national highway infrastructure development programme (b) A railway electrification programme exclusively (c) A banking sector reform programme exclusively (d) An agricultural subsidy programme exclusively - "Sagarmala" is a Government of India programme primarily focused on:
(a) Port-led development and coastal infrastructure (b) Railway electrification exclusively (c) Space research exclusively (d) Banking reform exclusively - Which of the following is primarily responsible for regulating and developing India's telecom sector?
(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Election Commission of India (d) Bureau of Indian Standards - In computer terminology, "ROM" stands for:
(a) Read Only Memory (b) Random Output Module (c) Rapid Operating Memory (d) Remote Output Memory - Which of the following best describes a "compiler" in computing?
(a) A program that translates source code into machine code (b) A device that prints documents (c) A device that scans images (d) A type of computer virus - "Malware" is a general term referring to:
(a) Malicious software designed to harm or exploit systems (b) Beneficial productivity software exclusively (c) Hardware components exclusively (d) Network cabling exclusively - In spreadsheet applications, the SUM function is used to:
(a) Add up a range of numeric values (b) Delete a range of cells (c) Format cell borders only (d) Insert an image - Which Indian programme focuses on providing affordable internet/broadband connectivity to rural areas via optical fibre?
(a) BharatNet (b) Only Digital India with no specific rural broadband component (c) Only Make in India (d) Only Skill India - The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) in India primarily manages:
(a) Retirement savings/provident fund accounts for organised sector employees (b) Currency issuance (c) Railway operations (d) Highway construction - Which of the following best describes the role of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
(a) Auditing government accounts and expenditure (b) Conducting elections (c) Issuing currency (d) Regulating telecom services - The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) primarily conducts examinations for recruitment to:
(a) All-India and central civil services (b) Only railway technical posts (c) Only state government clerical posts exclusively (d) Only private sector jobs - "Startup India" is a Government of India initiative primarily aimed at:
(a) Promoting and supporting entrepreneurship and new businesses (b) Only large public sector enterprises (c) Only foreign multinational corporations exclusively (d) Only agricultural cooperatives exclusively - Which of the following describes "e-Way Bill" in the context of India's GST system?
(a) An electronic document required for movement of goods above a specified value (b) A type of railway ticket (c) A type of passport application (d) A type of banking cheque - Which of the following best describes "artificial intelligence" (AI) in general computing terms?
(a) The simulation of human intelligence processes by computer systems (b) A type of physical computer hardware component only (c) A type of network cable (d) A type of printer - In common usage, "IoT" (Internet of Things) refers to:
(a) Interconnected physical devices that collect and exchange data over a network (b) A single standalone computer with no networking (c) A type of concrete admixture (d) A type of surveying instrument - Which of the following is primarily responsible for regulating insurance companies in India?
(a) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) (b) Reserve Bank of India exclusively (c) Election Commission (d) Bureau of Indian Standards - The "National Highways Development Project" primarily aims to:
(a) Expand and improve the national highway network (b) Expand only urban metro rail networks (c) Expand only airport infrastructure (d) Expand only rural postal services - Which of the following best describes "cybersecurity"?
(a) Protection of computer systems and networks from digital attacks/unauthorised access (b) Only physical security of a building (c) Only fire safety measures (d) Only structural safety of a bridge - Which of the following best describes "e-tendering" as increasingly used in government/infrastructure procurement?
(a) Conducting the tendering/bidding process for contracts electronically online (b) A purely manual paper-based tendering process with no electronic component (c) A method of concrete curing (d) A method of soil compaction - Overall, continuous professional awareness of current government infrastructure programmes and technology trends is valuable for RRB JE candidates primarily because:
(a) The General Awareness section of the exam draws on such current developments (b) It has no bearing on the examination whatsoever (c) It replaces the need for technical subject knowledge entirely (d) It is tested only in interviews, never in the written exam
Answer Key with Explanations
1.(a) IS 456 covers plain and reinforced concrete practice.
2.(a) IS 800 covers general construction in steel.
3.(a) IS 383 specifies coarse/fine aggregate requirements.
4.(a) Mortar is cement/lime, sand, and water.
5.(a) Lime mortar gains strength more slowly and reaches lower ultimate strength than cement mortar.
6.(a) Grouting injects fluid mixtures to fill/strengthen voids.
7.(a) False ceilings conceal services and aid acoustics/aesthetics.
8.(a) Vitrified tiles are dense, low-porosity, high-strength ceramic tiles.
9.(a) Aluminium offers light weight and corrosion resistance.
10.(a) PVC pipes are used for water supply/drainage.
11.(a) Terrazzo embeds stone chips in a polished cement matrix.
12.(a) Raised access floors allow concealed cable/service routing.
13.(a) Weep holes relieve hydrostatic pressure via drainage.
14.(a) Construction joints accommodate planned placement interruptions.
15.(a) Expansion joints accommodate thermal movement.
16.(a) Chajjas protect openings from sun/rain.
17.(a) Fire-resistant materials withstand high temperature without rapid failure.
18.(a) Acoustic insulation absorbs/blocks sound transmission.
19.(a) Curtain walls are non-load-bearing exterior systems attached to the frame.
20.(a) Precast construction casts elements off-site for later assembly.
21.(a) EDM computes distance from signal travel time/phase difference.
22.(a) A prism reflects the EDM signal back to the instrument.
23.(a) Remote sensing images identify land cover/land use categories.
24.(a) GPS positioning uses signal arrival time from multiple satellites.
25.(a) Densified GPS control networks serve as reference for ground surveys.
26.(a) Horizontal control uses precisely surveyed networks.
27.(a) Vertical control uses a benchmark-tied levelling network.
28.(a) Setting out transfers plan dimensions accurately to the ground.
29.(a) Batter boards mark/maintain reference lines for excavation/foundation work.
30.(a) A datum is a reference level, commonly MSL, for elevation measurement.
31.(a) MSL is established via long-term tide gauge observation.
32.(a) The Survey of India handles topographic mapping/geodetic control.
33.(a) A toposheet shows topographic features, contours, and grids.
34.(a) Geodetic surveying accounts for Earth's curvature over large areas.
35.(a) Plane surveying suits areas up to a few hundred square kilometres.
36.(a) Azimuth is a line's horizontal angle from a reference meridian.
37.(a) Total station data is processed using survey/mapping software.
38.(a) Drone surveying offers rapid, low-cost aerial data capture.
39.(a) LiDAR generates precise 3D point-cloud data via laser pulses.
40.(a) As-built surveys document actual constructed dimensions for records.
41.(a) RMC is plant-batched concrete transported ready-to-use.
42.(a) SCC flows/consolidates under its own weight without vibration.
43.(a) Fibres improve toughness and crack/post-cracking behaviour.
44.(a) High-performance concrete has enhanced strength/durability/workability.
45.(a) Workability is influenced by water content, aggregate grading, and admixtures.
46.(a) A cold joint arises from a time gap causing incomplete bonding.
47.(a) Detailing drawings specify bar diameter, spacing, shape, and cover.
48.(a) The lever arm is the distance between resultant compression and tension forces.
49.(a) A zero-force member carries no force under that loading condition.
50.(a) Statically determinate structures are solvable by equilibrium equations alone.
51.(a) Indeterminate structures need compatibility conditions in addition to equilibrium.
52.(a) The degree of indeterminacy is the number of extra unknowns beyond equilibrium equations.
53.(a) A propped cantilever has one fixed and one simple/roller support.
54.(a) An influence line shows a quantity's variation as a unit load moves across the structure.
55.(a) The elastic limit is the max stress for full recovery upon unloading.
56.(a) Ultimate tensile strength is the max tensile stress before failure.
57.(a) Ductility is the ability to undergo plastic deformation before fracture.
58.(a) Brittleness is broadly the opposite of ductility.
59.(a) Factor of safety is ultimate strength over permissible/working stress.
60.(a) Wind and/or seismic loads are considered for tall/exposed structures.
61.(a) Effective stress relates total stress, pore pressure, and soil-skeleton stress.
62.(a) Effective stress increases when pore pressure decreases at constant total stress.
63.(a) Quicksand occurs when upward seepage pressure approaches the submerged unit weight.
64.(a) A flow net has flow lines and equipotential lines for seepage.
65.(a) Direct shear/triaxial tests determine cohesion and friction angle.
66.(a) Angle of internal friction is significant for cohesionless soils like sand.
67.(a) Cohesion is significant for clayey soils.
68.(a) Slip circle analysis assesses slope/embankment stability.
69.(a) FoS against slope failure is resisting force over driving force.
70.(a) Drainage systems reduce pore pressure, improving stability.
71.(a) Darcy-Weisbach/Hazen-Williams equations estimate friction head loss.
72.(a) Minor losses arise from fittings, bends, valves, and section changes.
73.(a) Centrifugal pumps lift/transport water via impeller-driven kinetic energy.
74.(a) Specific speed classifies/selects appropriate pump/turbine type.
75.(a) A Pelton wheel is an impulse turbine.
76.(a) A Francis turbine is a reaction turbine.
77.(a) Rainwater harvesting collects/stores/recharges rainwater.
78.(a) Detention ponds temporarily store runoff, reducing peak flow.
79.(a) Coliform bacteria presence indicates microbial contamination.
80.(a) Waste management prioritises reduce, reuse, recycle, then safe disposal.
81.(a) Bharatmala Pariyojana is a national highway development programme.
82.(a) Sagarmala focuses on port-led development/coastal infrastructure.
83.(a) TRAI regulates/develops the telecom sector.
84.(a) ROM stands for Read Only Memory.
85.(a) A compiler translates source code into machine code.
86.(a) Malware is malicious software harming/exploiting systems.
87.(a) SUM adds up a range of numeric values.
88.(a) BharatNet provides rural broadband via optical fibre.
89.(a) EPFO manages provident fund accounts for organised-sector employees.
90.(a) CAG audits government accounts and expenditure.
91.(a) UPSC conducts exams for all-India/central civil services.
92.(a) Startup India promotes entrepreneurship/new businesses.
93.(a) An e-Way Bill is required electronically for goods movement above a threshold value.
94.(a) AI simulates human intelligence processes computationally.
95.(a) IoT is interconnected devices exchanging data over a network.
96.(a) IRDAI regulates insurance companies in India.
97.(a) The NHDP aims to expand/improve the national highway network.
98.(a) Cybersecurity protects systems/networks from digital attacks.
99.(a) E-tendering conducts bidding/tendering processes electronically.
100.(a) The GA section draws on current government/technology developments.