Full-Length Mock Test 6 — RRB JE CBT 2 Technical Abilities Pattern (100 MCQs)

Section A: Building Materials and Construction (20 Questions)

1. The compressive strength of good quality building stone (e.g., granite) is generally:
   (a) Very high, often exceeding 100 N/mm² (b) Extremely low, near zero (c) Identical to that of timber (d) Identical to that of loose sand
2. "Quarrying" refers to the process of:
   (a) Extracting stone from the earth's surface (b) Manufacturing cement (c) Seasoning timber (d) Testing concrete slump
3. A "dressed" stone, as used in masonry, is one that has been:
   (a) Shaped/finished to a required size and surface finish (b) Left entirely in its natural, unshaped state (c) Melted and recast (d) Chemically dissolved
4. Random rubble masonry is characterised by:
   (a) Irregularly shaped stones laid without a fixed coursing pattern (b) Perfectly uniform, machine-cut ashlar blocks only (c) Only brick, never stone (d) Only glass panels
5. Ashlar masonry is characterised by:
   (a) Finely dressed stones with fine joints, laid in regular courses (b) Completely undressed, irregular stones (c) Only mud blocks (d) Only bamboo
6. Concrete blocks (CMU - concrete masonry units) are commonly used as an alternative to:
   (a) Clay bricks in wall construction (b) Structural steel beams (c) Reinforcement bars (d) Roofing tiles exclusively
7. AAC (Autoclaved Aerated Concrete) blocks are valued in construction primarily for their:
   (a) Light weight and thermal insulation properties (b) Extremely high density (c) High cost with no other benefit (d) Poor fire resistance
8. Ferro-cement construction uses:
   (a) A cement mortar matrix reinforced with closely spaced wire mesh (b) Only large steel beams with no cement (c) Only timber with no cement or mesh (d) Only glass fibre with no mesh at all
9. Gabions, used in erosion control/retaining structures, are:
   (a) Wire mesh baskets filled with stones (b) Precast concrete beams (c) Steel reinforcement cages for columns (d) Timber planks used for shuttering
10. Which of the following is a commonly used waterproofing membrane material for roofs?
    (a) Bituminous felt/membrane (b) Ordinary unglazed brick (c) Uncoated mild steel sheet (d) Plain glass sheet
11. "Spalling" of concrete refers to:
    (a) Surface flaking/chipping, often due to reinforcement corrosion or freeze-thaw (b) A deliberate finishing texture (c) A curing technique (d) A type of admixture
12. Carbonation of concrete refers to a chemical process in which:
    (a) Atmospheric CO2 reacts with cement hydration products, potentially reducing alkalinity and increasing corrosion risk (b) Concrete absorbs oxygen to increase its strength indefinitely (c) Concrete converts entirely to limestone with no other effect (d) Concrete loses all of its aggregate content
13. Chloride attack on reinforced concrete primarily causes:
    (a) Corrosion of embedded reinforcement steel (b) Improved bond between steel and concrete (c) Reduced permeability of concrete (d) No effect whatsoever on durability
14. A "sacrificial anode" used in cathodic protection systems is intended to:
    (a) Corrode preferentially, protecting the main reinforcement steel (b) Increase the corrosion rate of the main reinforcement deliberately (c) Serve a purely decorative function (d) Replace the need for concrete cover entirely
15. Epoxy-coated reinforcement bars are used primarily to:
    (a) Provide additional corrosion resistance (b) Increase the bar's tensile strength substantially (c) Reduce the bar's cost to zero (d) Eliminate the need for concrete cover
16. Non-destructive testing (NDT) methods for concrete, such as the rebound hammer test, are used to:
    (a) Estimate in-situ concrete quality/strength without damaging the structure (b) Destroy the structure to test its ultimate capacity (c) Replace the need for any design calculation (d) Measure only the colour of concrete
17. The Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity (UPV) test on concrete assesses:
    (a) Concrete's relative quality/uniformity/potential defects via sound wave transmission speed (b) The setting time of cement only (c) The plasticity index of soil (d) The bearing capacity of soil directly
18. Retrofitting/strengthening of existing structures may involve techniques such as:
    (a) Jacketing of columns, external bonding of fibre-reinforced polymer (FRP), or added bracing (b) Complete demolition with no repair option ever considered (c) Only repainting with no structural intervention (d) Only cosmetic plastering with no structural benefit
19. Building maintenance broadly includes:
    (a) Routine inspection, repair, and preservation of a structure's functional/aesthetic condition (b) Only initial construction activities with no post-construction role (c) Only demolition activities (d) Only architectural design activities
20. Green/sustainable building materials are generally characterised by:
    (a) Lower environmental impact, often via recycled content or renewable sourcing (b) Higher environmental impact deliberately (c) Exclusive use of non-renewable resources (d) No consideration of energy efficiency whatsoever

Section B: Surveying (20 Questions)

21. A "traverse leg" refers to:
    (a) A single straight line segment between two consecutive traverse stations (b) The entire closed traverse as one unit (c) Only a curved survey line (d) Only a vertical measurement
22. In a "closed traverse," the survey lines:
    (a) Return to the starting point, forming a closed polygon (b) Never return to the starting point (c) Are always a single straight line with no closure (d) Are only used for underwater surveys
23. In an "open traverse," the survey lines:
    (a) Do not return to the starting point, commonly used for route surveys like roads/pipelines (b) Always form a closed polygon (c) Are only used for building layout (d) Cannot be adjusted for error at all
24. Route surveying (for roads, railways, canals) typically uses which type of traverse?
    (a) Open traverse (b) Only closed traverse, never open (c) No traverse at all, only levelling (d) Only triangulation with no traverse
25. Triangulation surveying establishes control points using a network of:
    (a) Interconnected triangles with measured angles and a baseline (b) Only isolated, unconnected points with no triangle network (c) Only straight lines with no angle measurement (d) Only underwater soundings
26. A "baseline" in triangulation surveying is:
    (a) A precisely measured line used as the basis for computing other triangle sides (b) An arbitrary line with no precision requirement (c) A line used only for levelling (d) A magnetic bearing reference exclusively with no length measurement
27. Trilateration, as a control surveying method, primarily involves measuring:
    (a) Distances between control points (rather than angles) to fix their positions (b) Only angles with no distance measurement (c) Only elevations with no horizontal position (d) Only soil properties
28. A "resection" in plane table surveying is used to determine:
    (a) The plane table's own unknown position using observations to known points (b) The elevation of a distant peak only (c) The soil bearing capacity (d) The concrete slump value
29. "Three-point problem" in plane table surveying refers to a method of solving:
    (a) Resection using three known points (b) A triangulation network with exactly three stations only, never more (c) A concrete mix design problem (d) A soil classification problem
30. The area of a traversed plot can be computed from traverse data using:
    (a) The coordinate method / formula based on latitudes and departures (b) Only a visual estimate with no calculation (c) Only the total traverse perimeter with no area formula (d) Only the magnetic declination value
31. A planimeter is an instrument used to:
    (a) Measure the area of an irregular plane figure directly from a map/plan (b) Measure vertical angles (c) Measure cement fineness (d) Measure concrete slump
32. Photogrammetric mapping accuracy is generally influenced by factors including:
    (a) Flying height, camera focal length, and photo scale (b) Only the pilot's personal preference (c) Only the colour of the aircraft (d) Only the time of day, with no other factor
33. A "stereoscope" is used in photogrammetry to:
    (a) View overlapping photographs to perceive a three-dimensional (stereo) model (b) Measure only 2D distances directly with no 3D perception (c) Measure soil permeability (d) Measure cement setting time
34. Orthophotos (used in modern GIS-based mapping) are aerial photographs that have been:
    (a) Geometrically corrected to remove distortion, providing accurate map-like scale (b) Left completely uncorrected/raw (c) Converted entirely to text data with no image content (d) Used only for soil testing
35. A "digital elevation model" (DEM) represents:
    (a) The terrain's elevation values across a grid/surface digitally (b) Only a 2D political boundary map (c) Only a soil classification chart (d) Only a cement grade chart
36. GNSS-based Real-Time Kinematic (RTK) surveying provides:
    (a) High-precision positioning in real time using correction data from a reference station (b) Only low-precision, delayed positioning with no correction (c) Only elevation data with no horizontal positioning (d) Only magnetic bearing data
37. Errors in surveying are broadly classified as:
    (a) Systematic (cumulative), random (compensating), and gross (mistakes) (b) Only random errors, with no other category (c) Only gross mistakes, with no systematic/random category (d) Only errors due to weather, with no instrumental category
38. A "systematic error" in surveying, unlike a random error, tends to:
    (a) Accumulate consistently in one direction if not corrected (b) Cancel out automatically over repeated measurements (c) Never occur in practice (d) Only affect chain surveying, never other methods
39. "Personal errors" in surveying arise primarily due to:
    (a) The observer's limitations in judgement/reading precision (b) Only the instrument's manufacturing defects (c) Only atmospheric conditions (d) Only the survey site's soil type
40. Modern survey data management increasingly relies on:
    (a) GIS and digital databases for storing/analysing spatial survey data (b) Only handwritten field books with no digital storage at all (c) Only verbal transmission of results with no written record (d) No data management at all, discarding all survey results after use

Section C: Concrete Technology, RCC, and Theory of Structures (20 Questions)

41. A "T-beam" in RCC construction typically arises when:
    (a) A slab is cast monolithically with a supporting beam, forming a composite T-shaped section (b) The beam has no slab connection whatsoever (c) The beam is circular in cross-section (d) The beam has no reinforcement at all
42. The "flange" of a T-beam refers to:
    (a) The slab portion acting compositely with the beam (b) The bottom tension reinforcement only (c) The stirrups only (d) The formwork only
43. The "web" (or rib) of a T-beam refers to:
    (a) The rectangular beam portion below the slab/flange (b) The slab portion only (c) The column supporting the beam (d) The foundation below the beam
44. An "L-beam" (inverted L-beam) in RCC construction typically occurs:
    (a) At the edge of a slab, where the flange projects to only one side (b) Only at the centre of a slab, symmetrical on both sides (c) Only in circular structures (d) Only in foundations, never in beams
45. In a doubly reinforced beam, compression reinforcement is provided primarily to:
    (a) Assist the concrete in resisting compressive stress, allowing a shallower section (b) Resist tension exclusively, replacing tension steel (c) Serve a purely decorative function (d) Increase the beam's self-weight with no strength benefit
46. Punching shear in flat slab construction refers to:
    (a) A localized shear failure around a column, potentially causing the column to punch through the slab (b) A shear failure occurring uniformly across the entire slab with no localisation (c) A tensile failure of the main reinforcement only (d) A failure exclusive to beams, never occurring in slabs
47. Shear walls in a building's structural system are primarily provided to resist:
    (a) Lateral loads such as wind and seismic forces (b) Only vertical gravity loads, with no lateral function (c) Only thermal loads (d) Only decorative loads
48. A "moment-resisting frame" structural system resists lateral loads primarily through:
    (a) Rigid beam-column connections providing moment resistance (b) Only shear walls with no frame action (c) Only base isolation with no frame contribution (d) Only foundation stiffness with no superstructure contribution
49. Base isolation, as a seismic-resistant design technique, works primarily by:
    (a) Decoupling the building from ground motion using flexible bearings/isolators (b) Rigidly connecting the building to bedrock with no flexibility (c) Increasing the building's mass to resist all motion (d) Eliminating the need for any structural design
50. Ductile detailing of RCC structures in seismic zones primarily aims to:
    (a) Ensure structures can undergo significant deformation without sudden collapse during an earthquake (b) Ensure structures fail suddenly and brittly during an earthquake (c) Eliminate the need for any reinforcement in seismic zones (d) Serve only an aesthetic purpose with no seismic benefit
51. The "response reduction factor" used in seismic design accounts for a structure's:
    (a) Ductility and energy absorption capacity, reducing the design seismic force (b) Total weight only, with no ductility consideration (c) Colour and finish (d) Cost of materials only
52. A "diaphragm" in structural engineering, such as a floor slab acting as one, primarily helps:
    (a) Distribute lateral loads to vertical resisting elements like shear walls/frames (b) Support only vertical gravity loads with no lateral function (c) Serve only as a walking surface with no structural function (d) Replace the need for any columns
53. "Redundancy" in structural systems refers to having:
    (a) Multiple load paths so failure of one element does not cause total collapse (b) A single load path only, with no alternative (c) No load path at all (d) Only decorative redundancy with no structural benefit
54. Progressive collapse in a structure refers to:
    (a) A chain-reaction failure where local damage spreads disproportionately through the structure (b) A planned, controlled demolition (c) A purely cosmetic surface defect (d) A beneficial structural behaviour with no safety concern
55. The purpose of expansion/contraction joints in long RCC structures, from a structural analysis viewpoint, is to:
    (a) Relieve stresses due to thermal movement and prevent unwanted restraint (b) Increase restraint stresses deliberately (c) Eliminate the need for any reinforcement (d) Serve only an architectural function with no structural relevance
56. In prestressed concrete, tendons are tensioned primarily to:
    (a) Induce compressive stress in concrete to counteract anticipated tensile stresses under load (b) Induce tensile stress in concrete deliberately with no compressive benefit (c) Replace the need for any concrete (d) Serve only a decorative function
57. "Pre-tensioning" in prestressed concrete involves tensioning tendons:
    (a) Before the concrete is cast/hardened (b) Only after the concrete has fully hardened (c) Only after the structure is in service for years (d) Never; pre-tensioning is not a real prestressing method
58. "Post-tensioning" in prestressed concrete involves tensioning tendons:
    (a) After the concrete has hardened, using ducts/anchorages (b) Only before the concrete is cast (c) Simultaneously with mixing the concrete (d) Never; post-tensioning is not a real prestressing method
59. A key advantage of prestressed concrete over conventional RCC is its ability to:
    (a) Span longer distances with reduced cracking under service loads (b) Eliminate the need for any concrete grade specification (c) Eliminate the need for any quality control (d) Increase self-weight without any structural benefit
60. Composite construction (e.g., steel-concrete composite beams) combines materials primarily to:
    (a) Utilise the favourable properties of each material together for improved structural efficiency (b) Increase cost with no structural benefit (c) Eliminate the need for any connection between materials (d) Serve a purely decorative purpose

Section D: Geotechnical, Hydraulics, and Environmental Engineering (20 Questions)

61. A "geotechnical investigation" for a proposed structure typically includes:
    (a) Boring/trial pits, soil sampling, and laboratory/field testing (b) Only a visual surface inspection with no subsurface investigation (c) Only architectural drawing review (d) Only a cost estimate with no soil testing
62. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT), commonly performed during site investigation, primarily provides:
    (a) An indication of soil density/consistency via blow counts (b) The exact chemical composition of soil (c) The plasticity index directly with no blow count involved (d) The cement content of concrete
63. Undisturbed soil samples are collected primarily to:
    (a) Preserve the soil's in-situ structure for accurate laboratory strength/consolidation testing (b) Deliberately disturb the soil's structure for testing (c) Test only the soil's colour (d) Replace the need for any laboratory testing
64. A "borehole log" typically records:
    (a) Soil/rock strata encountered, sample depths, and test results along the boring (b) Only the weather conditions during drilling with no soil information (c) Only the drilling machine's model number (d) Only the contractor's invoice details
65. Groundwater table depth information from a site investigation is important primarily for:
    (a) Foundation design, dewatering planning, and assessing bearing capacity/settlement (b) Deciding the building's paint colour (c) Deciding the building's architectural style only (d) No practical engineering purpose
66. "Negative skin friction" on a pile occurs when:
    (a) Surrounding soil settles more than the pile, dragging down additional load on it (b) The pile settles more than the surrounding soil, reducing load on it (c) The pile is entirely above ground with no soil contact (d) The soil around the pile has zero unit weight
67. Group action of piles refers to the phenomenon where:
    (a) The capacity of a pile group may differ from the sum of individual pile capacities due to interaction (b) Each pile in a group behaves in complete isolation with no interaction whatsoever (c) Only a single pile is ever used, with no group ever formed (d) Pile groups have no engineering relevance
68. Soil stabilisation techniques (e.g., lime/cement stabilisation) are used primarily to:
    (a) Improve the engineering properties of weak/problematic soils (b) Deliberately weaken soil properties (c) Replace the need for any foundation design (d) Serve only a cosmetic purpose
69. Reinforced earth (using geotextiles/geogrids) in retaining structures works by:
    (a) Providing tensile reinforcement within the soil mass to improve stability (b) Removing all soil from the structure entirely (c) Replacing the need for any retaining wall facing (d) Serving only a drainage function with no reinforcing action
70. A geotextile used in road/embankment construction commonly serves the function of:
    (a) Separation, filtration, and/or reinforcement between soil layers (b) Only decorative surface colouring (c) Only chemical disinfection of soil (d) Only measuring soil temperature
71. The "specific energy" concept in open channel flow relates energy to:
    (a) The depth of flow, for a given discharge (b) The colour of water only (c) The chemical composition of water only (d) The construction cost of the channel
72. A "broad-crested weir," compared to a sharp-crested weir, has a crest that is:
    (a) Wide enough for the flow to be roughly parallel over it (b) Infinitely thin with no width at all (c) Always submerged completely with no free flow (d) Used only for measuring soil permeability
73. The "afflux" caused by a bridge/obstruction in a river channel refers to:
    (a) The rise in upstream water level due to the obstruction (b) A decrease in downstream water level only (c) A change in water colour only (d) A change in water temperature only
74. Scour around bridge piers is a concern primarily because it can:
    (a) Undermine the foundation, threatening structural stability (b) Improve the foundation's bearing capacity (c) Have no engineering significance at all (d) Only affect the pier's paint finish
75. Flood routing techniques are used primarily to:
    (a) Predict how a flood wave changes as it moves through a river reach or reservoir (b) Determine the setting time of cement (c) Determine the slump of concrete (d) Determine the plasticity index of soil
76. A "spillway" in a dam is provided primarily to:
    (a) Safely release excess water/flood flows, protecting the dam from overtopping (b) Store additional water permanently with no release function (c) Generate hydroelectric power exclusively with no flood-safety role (d) Serve only a decorative/aesthetic function
77. An "energy dissipator" (e.g., a stilling basin) below a spillway is provided to:
    (a) Dissipate the high kinetic energy of falling water, preventing downstream erosion (b) Increase the water's kinetic energy deliberately (c) Serve only an aesthetic purpose (d) Replace the need for a spillway entirely
78. Which of the following is a key parameter monitored for dam safety over its service life?
    (a) Seepage, deformation, and structural health via instrumentation (b) Only the dam's paint colour (c) Only the number of tourists visiting the site (d) Only the reservoir's name signage condition
79. Industrial effluent treatment before discharge is regulated primarily to:
    (a) Prevent contamination of receiving water bodies and protect public health/environment (b) Increase pollution levels deliberately (c) Reduce the treatment cost to zero with no environmental consideration (d) Serve no regulatory purpose whatsoever
80. Which of the following best describes "sustainable development" as applied to infrastructure projects?
    (a) Meeting present infrastructure needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs (b) Maximising short-term profit with no regard for future impact (c) Ignoring environmental and social factors entirely (d) Focusing solely on aesthetic appearance

Section E: General Awareness, Computer Applications, and Current Affairs (20 Questions)

81. The "National Infrastructure Pipeline" (NIP) in India is broadly aimed at:
    (a) Providing a large pipeline of infrastructure projects to boost investment and growth (b) Only a literal water supply pipeline project (c) Only a railway signalling upgrade (d) Only an urban housing scheme
82. Which of the following best describes the "Gati Shakti" National Master Plan?
    (a) An integrated approach to plan and coordinate infrastructure connectivity projects across sectors (b) A programme focused solely on space research (c) A programme focused solely on banking regulation (d) A programme focused solely on agricultural subsidies
83. Which Indian body regulates and licenses the electricity sector, including tariff-setting, at the central level?
    (a) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) (b) Election Commission of India (c) Bureau of Indian Standards (d) Reserve Bank of India
84. In computing, "cache memory" is primarily used to:
    (a) Provide faster temporary access to frequently used data, between CPU and main memory (b) Permanently store all files with no capacity constraint (c) Only display graphics (d) Only manage printer queues
85. A "server" in computer networking is best described as:
    (a) A computer/system that provides resources/services to other computers (client machines) (b) A device used only to print documents (c) A device used only for scanning images (d) A physical network cable exclusively
86. Which of the following best describes "phishing" in cybersecurity contexts?
    (a) A fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by disguising as a trustworthy entity (b) A legitimate method of secure data backup (c) A type of computer hardware component (d) A type of network cable
87. Which of the following is an example of a widely used operating system?
    (a) Windows (b) MS Excel (c) MS PowerPoint (d) Adobe Photoshop
88. In MS Excel, "VLOOKUP" is a function primarily used to:
    (a) Search for a value in one column and return a related value from another column (b) Format cell colours only (c) Delete a worksheet (d) Insert a chart only
89. The "Digital Locker" (DigiLocker) initiative in India primarily allows citizens to:
    (a) Store and access official documents digitally (b) Only make banking transactions (c) Only book railway tickets (d) Only apply for a passport
90. Which of the following best describes India's "UPI" (Unified Payments Interface)?
    (a) A real-time digital payment system enabling instant bank-to-bank transfers (b) A type of railway ticket booking system exclusively (c) A type of construction material testing standard (d) A type of surveying instrument
91. The "Ayushman Bharat" scheme in India is primarily focused on:
    (a) Providing health insurance/coverage to economically vulnerable families (b) Highway construction exclusively (c) Railway electrification exclusively (d) Banking sector reform exclusively
92. Which of the following best describes "renewable energy" targets set by India in international commitments?
    (a) Increasing the share of energy generated from sources like solar and wind (b) Increasing reliance solely on coal-based power (c) Eliminating all forms of energy generation (d) Focusing solely on nuclear power with no other renewable source
93. Which Indian organisation is primarily responsible for space research and satellite launches?
    (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) (b) Bureau of Indian Standards (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Election Commission of India
94. Which of the following best describes a "blockchain," in general computing terms?
    (a) A distributed digital ledger recording transactions across multiple systems (b) A type of physical construction material (c) A type of surveying instrument (d) A type of concrete admixture
95. The "One Nation One Ration Card" scheme in India primarily aims to:
    (a) Enable portability of food security benefits across states (b) Provide free railway travel nationwide (c) Provide free housing nationwide (d) Provide free internet connectivity nationwide
96. Which of the following best describes "e-commerce"?
    (a) Buying and selling of goods/services over the internet (b) A method of concrete curing (c) A method of soil stabilisation (d) A method of surveying control point establishment
97. India's efforts toward electric vehicle (EV) adoption are broadly supported through schemes such as:
    (a) FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric vehicles) (b) Only traditional fuel subsidy schemes with no EV component (c) Only railway electrification schemes with no road-vehicle component (d) No such scheme exists in India
98. Which of the following best describes "data privacy" in the context of digital governance?
    (a) Protecting individuals' personal information from unauthorised access/misuse (b) Making all personal data publicly available with no restriction (c) A concept irrelevant to government digital services (d) A purely architectural design concept with no data relevance
99. The "Skill India Mission" primarily aims to:
    (a) Enhance the employability of India's workforce through skill training (b) Only fund international scholarships with no domestic training component (c) Only support agricultural research (d) Only support space research
100. Staying updated on current government infrastructure, technology, and policy developments is useful preparation for RRB JE candidates chiefly because:
     (a) Such topics commonly appear in the General Awareness portion of the examination (b) They replace the need for core technical subject preparation (c) They are irrelevant to any competitive examination (d) They are tested only in a separate, unrelated examination

Answer Key with Explanations

1.(a) Good building stone like granite has high compressive strength, often over 100 N/mm².

2.(a) Quarrying extracts stone from the earth's surface.

3.(a) Dressed stone is shaped/finished to required size/finish.

4.(a) Random rubble masonry uses irregular stones without fixed coursing.

5.(a) Ashlar masonry uses finely dressed stones in regular courses.

6.(a) CMU blocks are an alternative to clay bricks.

7.(a) AAC blocks offer light weight and thermal insulation.

8.(a) Ferro-cement uses cement mortar reinforced with close wire mesh.

9.(a) Gabions are wire mesh baskets filled with stones.

10.(a) Bituminous felt/membrane is a common roof waterproofing material.

11.(a) Spalling is surface flaking, often from corrosion or freeze-thaw.

12.(a) Carbonation reacts CO2 with hydration products, potentially raising corrosion risk.

13.(a) Chloride attack causes reinforcement corrosion.

14.(a) A sacrificial anode corrodes preferentially to protect main steel.

15.(a) Epoxy coating adds corrosion resistance to bars.

16.(a) NDT like the rebound hammer estimates in-situ quality non-destructively.

17.(a) UPV assesses quality/uniformity via sound transmission speed.

18.(a) Retrofitting includes jacketing, FRP bonding, or added bracing.

19.(a) Building maintenance includes inspection, repair, and preservation.

20.(a) Green materials generally have lower environmental impact.

21.(a) A traverse leg is a single line segment between consecutive stations.

22.(a) A closed traverse returns to the starting point.

23.(a) An open traverse does not return to the start, used for route surveys.

24.(a) Route surveying typically uses open traverses.

25.(a) Triangulation uses interconnected triangles with measured angles/baseline.

26.(a) A baseline is a precisely measured reference line for triangle computation.

27.(a) Trilateration measures distances rather than angles to fix positions.

28.(a) Resection determines the plane table's own unknown position.

29.(a) The three-point problem solves resection using three known points.

30.(a) Plot area is computed via the coordinate method from latitudes/departures.

31.(a) A planimeter measures irregular plane figure area directly.

32.(a) Photogrammetric accuracy depends on flying height, focal length, and scale.

33.(a) A stereoscope enables 3D viewing of overlapping photographs.

34.(a) Orthophotos are geometrically corrected for accurate map scale.

35.(a) A DEM digitally represents terrain elevation across a grid.

36.(a) RTK provides high-precision real-time positioning using reference-station corrections.

37.(a) Errors are classified as systematic, random, and gross.

38.(a) Systematic errors accumulate consistently if uncorrected.

39.(a) Personal errors arise from observer judgement/reading limitations.

40.(a) Modern survey data management relies on GIS and digital databases.

41.(a) A T-beam forms when a slab casts monolithically with a beam.

42.(a) The flange is the slab portion acting with the beam.

43.(a) The web/rib is the rectangular beam portion below the flange.

44.(a) An L-beam occurs at a slab edge with a one-sided flange.

45.(a) Compression reinforcement assists concrete, allowing a shallower section.

46.(a) Punching shear is localized shear failure around a column in flat slabs.

47.(a) Shear walls resist lateral wind/seismic loads.

48.(a) Moment-resisting frames use rigid beam-column connections for lateral resistance.

49.(a) Base isolation decouples the building from ground motion via flexible bearings.

50.(a) Ductile detailing ensures deformation capacity without sudden collapse.

51.(a) The response reduction factor accounts for ductility/energy absorption.

52.(a) A diaphragm distributes lateral loads to vertical resisting elements.

53.(a) Redundancy provides multiple load paths against total collapse.

54.(a) Progressive collapse is disproportionate chain-reaction failure from local damage.

55.(a) Expansion joints relieve thermal stress and prevent unwanted restraint.

56.(a) Prestressing tendons induce compression to counteract service tensile stress.

57.(a) Pre-tensioning tensions tendons before casting.

58.(a) Post-tensioning tensions tendons after hardening via ducts/anchorages.

59.(a) Prestressed concrete spans longer with reduced service cracking.

60.(a) Composite construction combines materials' favourable properties efficiently.

61.(a) Geotechnical investigation includes boring, sampling, and testing.

62.(a) SPT indicates soil density/consistency via blow counts.

63.(a) Undisturbed samples preserve in-situ structure for accurate testing.

64.(a) A borehole log records strata, depths, and test results.

65.(a) Groundwater depth informs foundation design and dewatering/settlement assessment.

66.(a) Negative skin friction drags extra load onto a pile when soil settles more.

67.(a) Pile group capacity may differ from summed individual capacities due to interaction.

68.(a) Soil stabilisation improves weak soil's engineering properties.

69.(a) Reinforced earth uses tensile reinforcement in soil to improve stability.

70.(a) Geotextiles serve separation, filtration, and/or reinforcement functions.

71.(a) Specific energy relates flow depth to a given discharge.

72.(a) A broad-crested weir has a wide crest with roughly parallel flow over it.

73.(a) Afflux is the upstream water-level rise due to an obstruction.

74.(a) Scour can undermine pier foundations, threatening stability.

75.(a) Flood routing predicts flood wave changes through a reach/reservoir.

76.(a) A spillway safely releases excess water, preventing dam overtopping.

77.(a) An energy dissipator/stilling basin dissipates kinetic energy, preventing erosion.

78.(a) Dam safety monitoring covers seepage, deformation, and structural health.

79.(a) Effluent treatment regulation prevents water body contamination/protects health.

80.(a) Sustainable development meets present needs without compromising future generations.

81.(a) The NIP provides a large infrastructure project pipeline to boost investment.

82.(a) Gati Shakti integrates planning/coordination of infrastructure connectivity.

83.(a) CERC regulates/licenses the electricity sector centrally.

84.(a) Cache memory provides faster temporary access between CPU and main memory.

85.(a) A server provides resources/services to client computers.

86.(a) Phishing fraudulently seeks sensitive information via disguised trust.

87.(a) Windows is a widely used operating system.

88.(a) VLOOKUP searches one column and returns a related value from another.

89.(a) DigiLocker lets citizens store/access official documents digitally.

90.(a) UPI enables real-time instant bank-to-bank digital payments.

91.(a) Ayushman Bharat provides health insurance to vulnerable families.

92.(a) India's renewable targets increase solar/wind energy share.

93.(a) ISRO handles space research and satellite launches.

94.(a) A blockchain is a distributed digital ledger across multiple systems.

95.(a) One Nation One Ration Card enables food-benefit portability across states.

96.(a) E-commerce is buying/selling goods/services over the internet.

97.(a) FAME supports faster EV adoption/manufacturing.

98.(a) Data privacy protects personal information from unauthorised access/misuse.

99.(a) Skill India enhances workforce employability through training.

100.(a) Current affairs topics commonly appear in the GA section of the exam.