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Study Guide · Chapter 12

11. Extra Practice Drills by Difficulty Tier

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Once the twelve core categories and the distractor catalogue feel familiar, use this section to test yourself across three difficulty tiers in one sitting. Tier 1 mirrors the most commonly tested, single-error sentences you will meet in SSC CHSL and RRB-level papers. Tier 2 layers in slightly longer sentences of the kind seen in SSC CGL and Bank Clerk papers. Tier 3 combines two categories in one sentence, or tests a genuinely correct sentence disguised as an error — the level typically seen in Bank PO mains and CDS papers.

11.1 Tier 1 — Foundation Level (Q1–10)

1. She is good on solving puzzles within the time limit. (A) good at (B) good in (C) good for (D) No improvement

2. The list of selected candidates are pasted outside the office. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement

3. He submit his form yesterday before the last date. (A) submitted (B) submits (C) has submit (D) No improvement

4. She revert back to every email within a day. (A) reverts (B) reverts back again (C) reply backs (D) No improvement

5. The paper was more easier than expected this year. (A) easier (B) more easy (C) most easier (D) No improvement

6. Neither of the answers are fully correct according to the key. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement

7. He is capable to clear this exam in his first attempt. (A) capable of clearing (B) capable for clearing (C) capable to clearing (D) No improvement

8. The centre is famous with its strict discipline during exams. (A) famous for (B) famous of (C) famous about (D) No improvement

9. Each of the students were given a separate roll number slip. (A) was given (B) have been given (C) are given (D) No improvement

10. She has been waiting since two hours for her turn at the counter. (A) for (B) from (C) during (D) No improvement

11.2 Tier 2 — Intermediate Level (Q11–20)

11. The syllabus includes reasoning, mathematics, and to write an essay. (A) essay writing (B) writing of essay (C) an essay is written (D) No improvement

12. If she will practise daily, she will surely improve her accuracy. (A) practises (B) practised (C) had practised (D) No improvement

13. He said, "I have finished my preparation." (A) that he had finished his preparation (B) that he has finished his preparation (C) that he finished his preparation (D) No improvement

14. The manager, having reviewed the file, the report was approved by him. (A) having reviewed the file, he approved the report (B) the report, having reviewed the file, was approved by him (C) having reviewed the file, approval was given (D) No improvement

15. The centre was overcrowded, and the board split it into two shifts. (A) so (B) but (C) although (D) No improvement

16. She has been preparing since three years for this examination. (A) for (B) from (C) during (D) No improvement

17. The two candidates were compared, and their scores are almost identical with each other. (A) are almost identical to (B) are almost identical as (C) are almost identically with (D) No improvement

18. He is one of the officers who has served in three different zones. (A) have (B) having (C) is having (D) No improvement

19. Unless the discrepancy is not resolved soon, the case will remain pending. (A) is resolved (B) will not be resolved (C) was not resolved (D) No improvement

20. The number of applicants this year are much higher than last year. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement

11.3 Tier 3 — Advanced Level (Q21–30)

21. Had she known about the change in venue earlier, she would not miss the exam entirely. (A) would not have missed (B) will not miss (C) had not missed (D) No improvement

22. The reason for her absence from the interview is because she was unwell that day. (A) is that (B) was because (C) is due to that (D) No improvement

23. She is one of the few candidates who has cleared this exam without any coaching. (A) have cleared (B) has clear (C) is clearing (D) No improvement

24. By the time the interview panel arrives tomorrow, all the candidates will assemble in the waiting room. (A) will have assembled (B) had assembled (C) assemble (D) No improvement

25. Most of the syllabus for the mains examination have already been covered in class. (A) has already been covered (B) having already been covered (C) are already covered (D) No improvement

26. She not only cleared the prelims but also topping the mains in the same year. (A) topped the mains (B) the mains was topped by her (C) top the mains (D) No improvement

27. The report recommends reducing the syllabus and that the pattern should be revised. (A) revising the pattern (B) the pattern revising (C) to revise the pattern (D) No improvement

28. Despite having failed twice, she remained confident of clearing it on her third attempt. (A) having failed twice (B) she had failed twice (C) to have failed twice (D) No improvement

29. The panel found her answers relevant, well structured, and she was confident throughout. (A) relevant, well structured, and confident (B) relevant and well structured and confidence (C) relevant, structuring well, and confident (D) No improvement

30. Twenty thousand rupees are a reasonable fee for a course of this quality. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement

Answer Key — Extra Practice Drills

Tier 1

  1. (A) — "good at," not "on"; (B) and (C) supply different, equally wrong prepositions.
  2. (A) — "list" is the true singular subject; "candidates" is only the object of the intervening prepositional phrase.
  3. (A) — "yesterday" is a definite past marker, requiring simple past, not the base form used in the original.
  4. (A) — "revert" already means "reply back," so "back" is redundant; (B) and (C) each keep or add a redundant word instead of removing it.
  5. (A) — removes the double comparative "more easier"; (B) still misuses "more" with a short adjective, and (C) compounds the error with a superlative on top.
  6. (A) — "neither of" always takes a singular verb, "is," regardless of the plural noun that follows.
  7. (A) — "capable of" + gerund is the fixed idiom; (B) and (C) each keep a wrong preposition or verb form.
  8. (A) — "famous for," not "with"; (B) and (C) supply different, equally wrong prepositions.
  9. (A) — "each of" always takes a singular verb, "was," regardless of the plural noun that follows.
  10. (A) — a duration ("two hours") requires "for," not "since," which pairs only with a starting point in time.

Tier 2 11. (A) — matches the plain-noun pattern of "reasoning, mathematics" with a matching noun phrase, "essay writing," instead of an infinitive. 12. (A) — a first-conditional "if" clause never takes "will"; it requires simple present, "practises." 13. (A) — present perfect ("have finished") backshifts to past perfect ("had finished") in reported speech. 14. (A) — repositions the dangling opening participial phrase so it attaches to "he," the manager who actually reviewed the file, not "the report." 15. (A) — the second clause is a direct result of the first (overcrowding causing a shift split), requiring "so," not the purely additive "and." 16. (A) — a duration ("three years") requires "for," not "since." 17. (A) — "identical to," not "with"; the idiom does not accept "with" as its fixed preposition. 18. (A) — "one of the officers who" requires the plural verb "have," agreeing with "who...officers," not the singular subject "he" of the main clause. 19. (A) — "unless" already means "if not"; adding "is not" creates a double negative that reverses the intended meaning. 20. (A) — "the number of" is always treated as singular, requiring "is," despite the plural-looking "applicants" sitting nearby.

Tier 3 21. (A) — an inverted third-conditional main clause requires "would not have missed," matching the past-perfect "Had she known." 22. (A) — "the reason is because" doubles up on cause; the standard formal correction is "the reason is that." 23. (A) — "one of the few candidates who" requires the plural "have," agreeing with "who...candidates." 24. (A) — a future "by the time" reference point requires future perfect, "will have assembled," not a plain future or present form. 25. (A) — "most of the syllabus" (an uncountable singular noun after "of") requires the singular "has," not "have." 26. (A) — matches the simple-past active verb pattern of "cleared" in the first half of the "not only...but also" structure. 27. (A) — matches the gerund pattern of "reducing," so the second item in the list must also be a gerund phrase, "revising the pattern." 28. (D) No improvement — "despite" correctly takes the gerund phrase "having failed twice"; this sentence needs no fix. 29. (A) — matches the adjective-list pattern of "relevant, well structured," requiring a third plain adjective, "confident," not a full embedded clause. 30. (A) — a sum of money is treated as a single amount, taking the singular verb "is," even though the numeral itself is plural in form.


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