8. Practice Section — 100 Questions
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Attempt every question in the exact underline-plus-options exam format before checking the answer key. The set is organised into twelve parts, one broadly per category from Section 3, plus a closing mixed set that leans on the No-Improvement discipline from Section 5. Treat this as a timed mock: budget roughly forty-five seconds per question on your first attempt (about seventy-five minutes total), then review every miss against the relevant category in Section 3 or the relevant pattern in Section 4.
Part A — Preposition and Idiom Correction (Q1–15)
1. The HR panel congratulated her for clearing the final round of interviews. (A) congratulated her on (B) congratulated her at (C) congratulated her with (D) No improvement
2. He is not interested on switching his branch of engineering at this stage. (A) interested in (B) interested at (C) interested for (D) No improvement
3. Her promotion is entirely dependent of her performance in this year's appraisal cycle. (A) dependent on (B) dependent with (C) dependent about (D) No improvement
4. The coaching centre is famous of its evening doubt-clearing sessions. (A) famous for (B) famous with (C) famous about (D) No improvement
5. She was convinced about her chances of clearing the interview round after the mock session. (A) convinced of (B) convinced with (C) convinced at (D) No improvement
6. The new recruit is still not familiar of the internal filing procedure. (A) familiar with (B) familiar to (C) familiar about (D) No improvement
7. His handwriting is remarkably similar with his elder brother's handwriting. (A) similar to (B) similar as (C) similar for (D) No improvement
8. The union remained firmly opposed with the revised fee structure. (A) opposed to (B) opposed for (C) opposed at (D) No improvement
9. She felt genuinely grateful with her mentor for the constant guidance during preparation. (A) grateful to (B) grateful for (C) grateful at (D) No improvement
10. The candidate's answer was almost identical with the model answer in the key. (A) identical to (B) identical as (C) identical for (D) No improvement
11. He remained deeply suspicious at the sudden change in the seating arrangement. (A) suspicious of (B) suspicious about (C) suspicious with (D) No improvement
12. The written score is entirely independent from the category-based relaxation applied later. (A) independent of (B) independent with (C) independent for (D) No improvement
13. She has been happily married since a fellow officer for the last four years. (A) married to (B) married with (C) married at (D) No improvement
14. He was visibly ashamed for forgetting his admit card on the day of the exam. (A) ashamed of (B) ashamed about (C) ashamed at (D) No improvement
15. This year's cutoff is closely related with the overall difficulty level of the paper. (A) related to (B) related with (C) related at (D) No improvement
Part B — Tense-Sequencing Correction (Q16–25)
16. She is living in this city since she joined the bank five years ago. (A) has been living (B) was living (C) lives (D) No improvement
17. By the time the results are declared, most candidates will move on to preparing for the next exam. (A) will have moved on (B) had moved on (C) move on (D) No improvement
18. He will submit his application yesterday, but the portal was already closed by then. (A) submitted (B) had submit (C) submits (D) No improvement
19. She has finished her revision by the time the admit card was released. (A) had finished (B) finishes (C) will finish (D) No improvement
20. The board is reviewing the objection sheets since last Tuesday without a break. (A) has been reviewing (B) reviewed (C) was reviewing (D) No improvement
21. He studied in this institute for the past two years and plans to continue next year as well. (A) has been studying (B) had studied (C) studies (D) No improvement
22. If the notification comes out next week as expected, she will begin her preparation immediately. (A) comes (B) will come (C) came (D) No improvement
23. She had already left the hall when the invigilator announced the extra ten minutes just now. (A) has already left (B) already left (C) will already leave (D) No improvement
24. By next year, he will complete five consecutive attempts at this same examination. (A) will have completed (B) has completed (C) completes (D) No improvement
25. They are waiting outside the gate since six in the morning for the counter to open. (A) have been waiting (B) waited (C) wait (D) No improvement
Part C — Voice Conversion Correction (Q26–35)
26. The clerk is verifying carefully by the documents submitted by each applicant. (A) is carefully verifying the (B) is verified carefully by the (C) verifying carefully is the (D) No improvement
27. The final merit list will display by the board on its official website tomorrow. (A) will be displayed by the (B) will display of the (C) is displaying by the (D) No improvement
28. The interview panel has been asking difficult questions was to every shortlisted candidate this round. (A) has been asking difficult questions to (B) has asked difficult questions being (C) is asked difficult questions by (D) No improvement
29. All disputed answers are re-checking by a separate panel of subject experts. (A) are being re-checked by (B) are re-checking of (C) have re-checked by (D) No improvement
30. The revised timetable notified by the board late last night without prior warning. (A) was notified by the board (B) has notify by the board (C) is notifying by the board (D) No improvement
31. The candidates were being instructed strictly the invigilator to switch off their phones. (A) were strictly instructed by the (B) were instructing strictly by the (C) strictly instructed the (D) No improvement
32. A fresh set of guidelines issuing by the ministry ahead of the next recruitment cycle. (A) is being issued by the ministry (B) issues by the ministry (C) has issuing by the ministry (D) No improvement
33. The mistake in the question paper was noticing by several candidates during the exam itself. (A) was noticed by several (B) noticed by several (C) is noticing by several (D) No improvement
34. Her application rejected by the scrutiny committee for an incomplete category certificate. (A) was rejected by the scrutiny committee (B) has reject by the scrutiny committee (C) rejects by the scrutiny committee (D) No improvement
35. The revised syllabus has been circulating among all the coaching centres in the district. (A) has been circulated among all (B) has circulating among all (C) is circulate among all (D) No improvement
Part D — Subject-Verb Agreement Correction (Q36–45)
36. The group of aspirants preparing for the mains meet every Sunday at the district library. (A) meets (B) meeting (C) are meet (D) No improvement
37. Either the coordinator or the volunteers is responsible for arranging the seating chart. (A) are responsible (B) was responsible for (C) responsible for (D) No improvement
38. A large number of applicants has withdrawn their forms after the fee hike was announced. (A) have withdrawn (B) has withdraw (C) having withdrawn (D) No improvement
39. The committee of five senior officers were unanimous in rejecting the appeal. (A) was unanimous (B) have been unanimous (C) are unanimous (D) No improvement
40. Twenty kilometres are too far to travel daily just to reach the coaching centre. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement
41. One of the finest qualities a candidate can have are patience under pressure. (A) is (B) were (C) have been (D) No improvement
42. Everyone who registered for the mock test have received a confirmation email by now. (A) has received (B) receive (C) having received (D) No improvement
43. The team of examiners responsible for setting the paper remain anonymous until the exam is over. (A) remains (B) is remain (C) remaining (D) No improvement
44. Neither of the two shifts were significantly easier than the other, according to student feedback. (A) was (B) have been (C) are (D) No improvement
45. The majority of the syllabus for this post deal with financial regulations and banking law. (A) deals (B) dealing (C) are dealing (D) No improvement
Part E — Redundancy Trimming (Q46–52)
46. Please cancel and withdraw your earlier application before submitting the corrected one. (A) cancel (B) fully cancel and completely withdraw (C) cancel out and withdraw back (D) No improvement
47. The final and ultimate deadline for fee payment is the coming Friday. (A) The final deadline (B) The final and last deadline (C) The ultimate and final deadline (D) No improvement
48. He gave his honest and truthful opinion about the difficulty of this year's paper. (A) his honest opinion (B) his honest and true opinion (C) his truthful and sincere opinion (D) No improvement
49. Kindly co-operate together with the invigilators during the biometric verification process. (A) Kindly co-operate with (B) Kindly co-operate together and jointly with (C) Kindly jointly co-operate with (D) No improvement
50. The two circulars issued by the board basically say more or less the same thing. (A) say essentially the same thing (B) basically and essentially say the same thing (C) say more or less basically the same (D) No improvement
51. She has to compulsorily and necessarily submit her category certificate before the interview. (A) compulsorily submit (B) necessarily and compulsorily submit (C) submit compulsorily and mandatorily (D) No improvement
52. The final outcome and end result of the appeal will be known within a week. (A) The final outcome (B) The final outcome and eventual result (C) The end result and final outcome (D) No improvement
Part F — Parallelism Correction (Q53–60)
53. The eligibility criteria include a minimum age of eighteen, a relevant degree, and candidates must clear a medical test. (A) clearing a medical test (B) to clear a medical test (C) medical test must be cleared (D) No improvement
54. Good exam strategy involves managing time wisely, staying calm, and you must attempt easy questions first. (A) attempting easy questions first (B) to attempt easy questions first (C) easy questions are attempted first (D) No improvement
55. The notification explains how to register online, upload documents, and payment of the fee. (A) pay the fee (B) fee payment (C) the paying of fee (D) No improvement
56. His weaknesses include poor time management, weak vocabulary, and he loses focus easily. (A) losing focus easily (B) to lose focus easily (C) his focus being lost easily (D) No improvement
57. She not only cleared the written exam but also the interview was cleared by her on her first attempt. (A) cleared the interview (B) the interview she cleared (C) clearing the interview (D) No improvement
58. The report recommends reducing the syllabus, revising the exam pattern, and the fee should be increased. (A) increasing the fee (B) to increase the fee (C) fee increment (D) No improvement
59. A successful candidate is disciplined, focused, and shows patience throughout the long preparation period. (A) patient (B) shows patience towards work (C) has patience showing (D) No improvement
60. Either she withdraws her objection formally, or her appeal is going to be rejected outright. (A) her appeal will be rejected (B) her appeal rejecting (C) rejecting of her appeal happens (D) No improvement
Part G — Comparison-Structure Correction (Q61–67)
61. This year's question paper was more tougher than any paper set in the last decade. (A) tougher (B) more tough (C) most tougher (D) No improvement
62. Her overall percentage is higher than any candidate in her entire batch. (A) that of any other candidate (B) any other candidates (C) any candidates (D) No improvement
63. This centre's pass rate is as good, if not better, than any other centre in the state. (A) as good as, if not better than (B) as good as, if not better as (C) so good as, if not better than (D) No improvement
64. Between the two shortlisted candidates, the panel felt she was the most suitable for the post. (A) the more suitable (B) most suitable more (C) the suitablest (D) No improvement
65. He made less errors in the descriptive paper than he had in his previous attempt. (A) fewer (B) more less (C) lesser (D) No improvement
66. Her spoken English is far more better than it was a year ago, thanks to daily practice. (A) far better (B) far more good (C) more far better (D) No improvement
67. Of the two competing offers, he considered the government post the best option overall. (A) the better (B) most best (C) the bestest (D) No improvement
Part H — Conditional / If-Clause Correction (Q68–73)
68. If the exam will be postponed, the board will issue a fresh notification within two days. (A) is postponed (B) postponed (C) had been postponed (D) No improvement
69. If she practises mock interviews last month, she would have felt far more confident today. (A) had practised (B) practised (C) would practise (D) No improvement
70. If I were in your position, I will accept the offer without a second thought. (A) would accept (B) accept (C) would have accepted (D) No improvement
71. Unless the discrepancy does not get resolved soon, the appeal will remain pending indefinitely. (A) gets resolved (B) will not get resolved (C) did not get resolved (D) No improvement
72. Had the coordinator informed us earlier about the venue shift, we would not have missed the reporting time. (A) informed (B) inform (C) had informed (D) No improvement
73. If the server does not crash again, the exam will proceed as scheduled for the remaining batches. (A) will proceed (B) would proceed (C) proceeds (D) No improvement
Part I — Reported Speech Correction (Q74–79)
74. The coordinator said, "I will announce the results now." (A) that he would announce the results then (B) that he will announce the results now (C) that he would announce the results now (D) No improvement
75. She asked him, "Where are you preparing for this exam?" (A) where he was preparing for that exam (B) where was he preparing for this exam (C) that where he was preparing (D) No improvement
76. He said, "I have already cleared the written round." (A) that he had already cleared the written round (B) that he has already cleared the written round (C) that he already cleared the written round (D) No improvement
77. She said to her batchmates, "Let's attempt one full-length mock tomorrow." (A) she suggested to her batchmates that they attempt one full-length mock the next day (B) she said to her batchmates that let's attempt one full-length mock tomorrow (C) she told her batchmates to let attempt one mock the next day (D) No improvement
78. The circular stated, "Candidates must reach the venue by seven." (A) that candidates had to reach the venue by seven (B) that candidates must reached the venue by seven (C) that candidates must to reach the venue by seven (D) No improvement
79. He told me, "I can finish this section in ten minutes." (A) that he could finish that section in ten minutes (B) that he can finish this section in ten minutes (C) that he could finished this section in ten minutes (D) No improvement
Part J — Modifier-Repositioning Correction (Q80–85)
80. Having attempted every question twice, the answer sheet was submitted by him with confidence. (A) having attempted every question twice, he submitted the answer sheet with confidence (B) the answer sheet, having attempted every question twice, was submitted by him (C) having attempted every question twice, confidence was shown by him (D) No improvement
81. The coordinator explained the new rules to the volunteers briefly before the exam started. (A) briefly to the volunteers (B) to briefly the volunteers (C) to the volunteers in brief manner (D) No improvement
82. Feeling confident after the mock series, the exam hall was entered by her calmly. (A) feeling confident after the mock series, she entered the exam hall calmly (B) the exam hall, feeling confident after the mock series, was entered by her (C) feeling confident after the mock series, calmness was shown entering (D) No improvement
83. She nearly answered all forty questions within the stipulated time, missing only the last one. (A) answered nearly all forty questions (B) nearly answered forty all questions (C) answered all nearly forty questions (D) No improvement
84. Exhausted after the long queue, the water bottle was quickly opened by him. (A) exhausted after the long queue, he quickly opened the water bottle (B) the water bottle, exhausted after the long queue, was opened by him (C) exhausted after the long queue, opening was done by him (D) No improvement
85. He submitted the form online just before midnight, narrowly beating the deadline. (A) just before midnight online (B) online before just midnight (C) before midnight just online (D) No improvement
Part K — Connector / Conjunction Correction (Q86–91)
86. Though the server crashed twice, but the technical team resolved it within an hour each time. (A) Though the server crashed twice, (B) Even though the server crashed twice, but (C) Since the server crashed twice, but (D) No improvement
87. The centre was overcrowded, and the board decided to split it into two shifts. (A) so (B) but (C) although (D) No improvement
88. He scored exceptionally well in the written round, so he had struggled badly in the interview the previous year. (A) although (B) because (C) and (D) No improvement
89. She revised every chapter carefully; furthermore, she barely managed to finish the paper on time. (A) however (B) therefore (C) similarly (D) No improvement
90. Because the notification was ambiguous, therefore many candidates applied under the wrong category. (A) Because the notification was ambiguous, (B) As the notification was ambiguous, therefore (C) Since the notification was ambiguous, hence (D) No improvement
91. The syllabus was revised at the last minute, and most coaching centres had no time to update their material. (A) so (B) yet (C) whereas (D) No improvement
Part L — Mixed Practice and No-Improvement Discipline (Q92–100)
92. The number of vacancies announced this year are higher than the previous three years combined. (A) is higher (B) have been higher (C) were higher (D) No improvement
93. She has been preparing for this exam since the last eight months without a single day's break. (A) for the last eight months (B) from the last eight months (C) during the last eight months (D) No improvement
94. Had the invigilator checked the seating chart earlier, the mix-up would never have happened. (A) Has the invigilator checked (B) If the invigilator had checked (C) Had the invigilator check (D) No improvement
95. Each of the candidates was asked to produce their original identity proof at the entry gate. (A) were asked (B) have been asked (C) are asked (D) No improvement
96. The reason for the sudden delay in results is because of a server malfunction at the data centre. (A) is that (B) was because (C) is due to that (D) No improvement
97. He is one of the few aspirants who have cracked this exam without joining any coaching institute. (A) has (B) having (C) is having (D) No improvement
98. By the time she reaches the venue tomorrow, the gates will already close for late entrants. (A) will already have closed (B) are already closed (C) had already closed (D) No improvement
99. Most of the questions in the reasoning section was based on puzzles and seating arrangements this year. (A) were (B) has been (C) is (D) No improvement
100. The panel found her responses both articulate and well reasoned, unlike most other candidates interviewed that day. (A) articulate as well as reasoning well (B) both articulate and reasoning well (C) articulate and also being well reasoned (D) No improvement
Answer Key with Explanations
Part A
- (A) — "congratulate...on," not "for."
- (A) — "interested in," not "on."
- (A) — "dependent on," not "of."
- (A) — "famous for," not "of."
- (A) — "convinced of," not "about."
- (A) — "familiar with," not "of."
- (A) — "similar to," not "with."
- (A) — "opposed to," not "with."
- (A) — "grateful to" (a person), not "with."
- (A) — "identical to," not "with."
- (A) — "suspicious of," not "at."
- (A) — "independent of," not "from."
- (A) — "married to," not "since" (which is not even a preposition fit for this construction at all).
- (A) — "ashamed of," not "for."
- (A) — "related to," not "with."
Part B 16. (A) — "since" + a starting point requires present perfect continuous, "has been living," not present continuous. 17. (A) — a future "by the time" clause with a later future consequence needs future perfect, "will have moved on." 18. (A) — "yesterday" is a definite past marker, requiring simple past, "submitted," not future. 19. (A) — a past "by the time" reference point requires past perfect, "had finished." 20. (A) — "since last Tuesday" requires present perfect continuous, "has been reviewing." 21. (A) — "for the past two years" plus continuation ("plans to continue") requires present perfect continuous. 22. (D) No improvement — the "if" clause of a first conditional correctly uses simple present, "comes," matching future "will begin." 23. (D) No improvement — past perfect "had already left" correctly precedes the past-tense "announced... just now" framing (read as reporting a moment ago). 24. (A) — "by next year" with a future reference point requires future perfect, "will have completed." 25. (A) — "since six in the morning" requires present perfect continuous, "have been waiting."
Part C 26. (A) — corrects both the garbled passive-like construction and adverb placement, restoring clean active voice with "carefully" properly positioned. 27. (A) — passive with future auxiliary, "will be displayed," correctly matches the agent phrase "by the board." 28. (A) — removes the stray, ungrammatical "was" and keeps clean active voice with a properly placed indirect object "to." 29. (A) — passive continuous requires "are being re-checked," not the garbled active-form hybrid. 30. (A) — needs the passive auxiliary "was" before the participle "notified." 31. (A) — restores standard passive word order, "were strictly instructed by the," fixing the garbled original. 32. (A) — passive continuous, "is being issued," correctly matches an ongoing present action. 33. (A) — needs the correct past participle "noticed," not "noticing." 34. (A) — needs the passive auxiliary "was" before "rejected." 35. (A) — needs the correct past participle "circulated," not the present participle "circulating."
Part D 36. (A) — "group" is a singular collective noun here, requiring "meets." 37. (A) — "either...or" agrees with the nearer subject, plural "volunteers," requiring "are." 38. (A) — "a large number of" is treated as plural, requiring "have withdrawn." 39. (A) — "committee" as a single unit requires the singular "was." 40. (A) — a distance/measurement is treated as a single amount, requiring "is." 41. (A) — the true subject is singular "one," requiring "is," not the nearby plural "qualities." 42. (A) — "everyone" always takes a singular verb, requiring "has received." 43. (A) — "team" as a single unit requires the singular "remains." 44. (A) — "neither of" always takes a singular verb, requiring "was." 45. (A) — "majority of the syllabus" (uncountable noun after "of") requires the singular "deals."
Part E 46. (A) — "cancel" alone already covers the meaning of "withdraw" in this context; the pairing is redundant. 47. (A) — "final" and "ultimate" duplicate each other; only one is needed. 48. (A) — "honest" and "truthful" duplicate each other in this context. 49. (A) — "co-operate" already implies "together," making the addition redundant. 50. (A) — "basically" and "more or less" duplicate the same hedge; "essentially" alone is cleaner and non-redundant. 51. (A) — "compulsorily" and "necessarily" duplicate each other. 52. (A) — "outcome" and "result" duplicate each other, as do "final" and "end."
Part F 53. (A) — the list needs a gerund to match "managing... staying" — wait, cross-check: this list actually needs to match noun items "a minimum age... a relevant degree," so the third item should be the gerund phrase "clearing a medical test," which functions as a parallel noun-equivalent item alongside the two noun phrases; (A) is correct. 54. (A) — matches the gerund pattern of "managing... staying." 55. (A) — matches the bare-infinitive pattern of "register... upload." 56. (A) — matches the noun-phrase pattern of "poor time management, weak vocabulary" by using a gerund phrase that functions the same way. 57. (A) — matches the simple-past active pattern of "cleared" in the first half of "not only...but also." 58. (A) — matches the gerund pattern of "reducing... revising." 59. (A) — matches the adjective pattern of "disciplined, focused." 60. (A) — matches the future-tense active pattern implied by the "either...or" structure and the first clause's active voice.
Part G 61. (A) — removes the double comparative ("more tougher"). 62. (A) — adds "other" and correctly compares score-to-score with "that of." 63. (A) — completes the interrupted "as...as" comparison and pairs "higher" correctly with "than." 64. (A) — a two-item comparison requires the comparative "more suitable," not the superlative. 65. (A) — "errors" is countable, requiring "fewer," not "less." 66. (A) — removes the double comparative ("far more better"). 67. (A) — a two-item comparison requires "the better," not "the best."
Part H 68. (A) — a first-conditional "if" clause needs simple present, "is postponed," not "will be postponed." 69. (A) — a third-conditional main clause ("would have felt") requires past perfect in the "if" clause, "had practised." 70. (A) — "if I were you"-style second conditional requires "would accept" in the main clause. 71. (A) — "unless" already means "if not"; adding "does not" creates a double negative. 72. (D) No improvement — this is a correctly formed inverted third conditional matching "would not have missed." 73. (D) No improvement — a first-conditional "if" clause in simple present correctly pairs with "will proceed" in the main clause.
Part I 74. (A) — backshifts "will" to "would" and converts "now" to "then." 75. (A) — uses normal statement word order (no inversion) and backshifts to past tense. 76. (A) — backshifts present perfect to past perfect. 77. (A) — converts "let's" to "suggested that," and "tomorrow" to "the next day." 78. (A) — backshifts obligation "must" to "had to." 79. (A) — backshifts "can" to "could," with correct tense on the verb that follows.
Part J 80. (A) — repositions the sentence so the opening participial phrase attaches to "he," the person who actually attempted the questions, not the answer sheet. 81. (A) — repositions "briefly" next to the verb it modifies, avoiding ambiguity with the later clause. 82. (A) — attaches the opening participial phrase to "she," the person actually feeling confident, not the exam hall. 83. (D) No improvement — "nearly" correctly sits before "answered," precisely signalling that she came close to (but did not quite reach) answering every question, matching "missing only the last one." 84. (A) — attaches the opening participial phrase to "he," the person actually feeling exhausted, not the water bottle. 85. (D) No improvement — "online just before midnight" is already correctly ordered and unambiguous as written.
Part K 86. (A) — removes the redundant "but" paired with "though." 87. (A) — the second clause is a direct result of the first, requiring "so," not "and." 88. (A) — the two clauses contrast, requiring "although," not "so." 89. (A) — the two clauses contrast (thorough revision versus barely finishing), requiring "however," not "furthermore." 90. (A) — removes the redundant "therefore" paired with "because." 91. (A) — the second clause is a direct result of the first, requiring "so," not "and."
Part L 92. (A) — "the number of" is singular, requiring "is higher." 93. (A) — a duration requires "for," not "since." 94. (D) No improvement — a correctly formed inverted third conditional. 95. (D) No improvement — "each of" correctly takes the singular "was asked." 96. (A) — "the reason is because" is redundant; the standard correction is "the reason is that." 97. (A) — "one of the few aspirants who" requires the plural "have," agreeing with "who...aspirants." 98. (A) — a future "by the time" clause requires future perfect, "will already have closed." 99. (A) — "most of the questions" (plural noun after "of") requires the plural "were." 100. (D) No improvement — "both articulate and well reasoned" correctly pairs two parallel adjectives.