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Study Guide · Chapter 29

Full-Length Mock Test 1 — AP SI/Constable Prelims Pattern (100 MCQs)

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29. Full-Length Mock Test 1 — AP SI/Constable Prelims Pattern (100 MCQs)

This mock test follows the general AP SI/Constable Preliminary pattern discussed in Chapter 28: a General Studies section of 50 questions covering history, polity, geography, economy, science, general current-affairs-style awareness, and Andhra Pradesh-specific content, followed by an Arithmetic section of 30 questions and a Reasoning section of 20 questions. Attempt this paper under timed conditions for a realistic self-assessment. Each question carries four options; the correct answer is marked at the end of each question.

Instructions Before You Begin

Simulate real exam conditions as closely as possible. Set a timer for a total of 100 to 120 minutes depending on the specific time allowance in your actual notification, and do not pause the clock once you begin. Attempt the General Studies section first, followed by Arithmetic, followed by Reasoning, or follow whatever section order your own notification specifies — the important discipline is completing all three sections inside a single continuous timed block rather than spreading the attempt across multiple sittings, since fatigue and time pressure late in the paper are themselves part of what this mock is meant to simulate. Mark your answer choice for every question as you go, including a best guess on questions you are unsure of, unless your actual exam's negative marking scheme makes guessing on fully unfamiliar questions a poor strategy — refer back to the negative-marking discussion in Chapter 28 before deciding your own guessing policy. Once the timer ends, stop immediately, even if questions remain unattempted, since an honest sense of your real completion rate under time pressure is one of the most valuable outputs of this exercise.

After completing the paper, score yourself against the answer key embedded in each question below, then move to the worked-explanations section at the end of this chapter, which covers the arithmetic and reasoning questions most likely to have caused difficulty. Log your section-wise accuracy and completion rate somewhere you will return to — ideally alongside your results from Mock Test 2 in the next chapter — so that you can track whether your pacing and accuracy are improving across attempts rather than judging each mock in isolation.

Section A: General Studies (Questions 1-50)

  1. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: (b)
  2. The Indian National Congress was founded in which year?
    (a) 1885 (b) 1905 (c) 1857 (d) 1919
    Answer: (a)
  3. Which Mughal emperor built the Taj Mahal?
    (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb
    Answer: (c)
  4. The Quit India Movement was launched in which year?
    (a) 1930 (b) 1942 (c) 1920 (d) 1947
    Answer: (b)
  5. Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?
    (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Rajendra Prasad
    Answer: (b)
  6. The Battle of Plassey was fought in which year?
    (a) 1757 (b) 1764 (c) 1857 (d) 1600
    Answer: (a)
  7. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
    (a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 (c) Article 17 (d) Article 21
    Answer: (c)
  8. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in which year?
    (a) 1920 (b) 1922 (c) 1930 (d) 1919
    Answer: (a)
  9. Who was the founder of the Vijayanagara Empire?
    (a) Krishnadevaraya (b) Harihara and Bukka (c) Ashoka (d) Rajaraja Chola
    Answer: (b)
  10. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
    (a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part V (d) Part II
    Answer: (b)
  11. Which Andhra ruler is celebrated as one of the greatest kings of the Vijayanagara Empire, known for his patronage of Telugu literature?
    (a) Krishnadevaraya (b) Rajaraja Chola (c) Ashoka (d) Akbar
    Answer: (a)
  12. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which year?
    (a) 1919 (b) 1920 (c) 1857 (d) 1942
    Answer: (a)
  13. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are contained in which Part?
    (a) Part II (b) Part III (c) Part IV (d) Part V
    Answer: (b)
  14. Andhra State, the first state formed on a linguistic basis in independent India, was created in which year?
    (a) 1950 (b) 1953 (c) 1956 (d) 1960
    Answer: (b)
  15. The States Reorganisation Act, which redrew Indian state boundaries largely along linguistic lines, was passed in which year?
    (a) 1950 (b) 1953 (c) 1956 (d) 1962
    Answer: (c)
  16. Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh to form a separate state on which date?
    (a) 2 June 2014 (b) 26 January 2014 (c) 15 August 2013 (d) 1 November 2014
    Answer: (a)
  17. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
    (a) Lord Mountbatten (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) Lord Curzon (d) Warren Hastings
    Answer: (a)
  18. The Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) was led by Mahatma Gandhi in which year?
    (a) 1930 (b) 1919 (c) 1942 (d) 1920
    Answer: (a)
  19. Which is the longest river in India?
    (a) Yamuna (b) Godavari (c) Ganga (d) Krishna
    Answer: (c)
  20. The two major rivers flowing through Andhra Pradesh are the Krishna and which other river?
    (a) Godavari (b) Kaveri (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi
    Answer: (a)
  21. Which is the largest state in India by area?
    (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: (c)
  22. Andhra Pradesh's coastline lies along which body of water?
    (a) Arabian Sea (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Indian Ocean directly (d) Laccadive Sea
    Answer: (b)
  23. Which is the highest mountain peak in India?
    (a) Nanda Devi (b) Kangchenjunga (c) K2 (d) Mount Everest
    Answer: (b)
  24. The Eastern Ghats run predominantly through which of the following states, including Andhra Pradesh?
    (a) Rajasthan and Gujarat (b) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu (c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Kerala only
    Answer: (b)
  25. Which is the largest saltwater lake in India, located in Odisha?
    (a) Wular Lake (b) Chilika Lake (c) Dal Lake (d) Sambhar Lake
    Answer: (b)
  26. Who regulates monetary policy and banking in India?
    (a) SEBI (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) NITI Aayog (d) Finance Ministry alone
    Answer: (b)
  27. India's financial year runs from which dates?
    (a) January to December (b) April to March (c) July to June (d) October to September
    Answer: (b)
  28. NITI Aayog replaced which earlier planning body?
    (a) Finance Commission (b) Planning Commission (c) Election Commission (d) Law Commission
    Answer: (b)
  29. Which body regulates the securities market in India?
    (a) RBI (b) IRDAI (c) SEBI (d) CBI
    Answer: (c)
  30. The Union Budget of India is presented in Parliament by whom?
    (a) The President (b) The Finance Minister (c) The Prime Minister (d) The RBI Governor
    Answer: (b)
  31. The SI unit of force is:
    (a) Joule (b) Newton (c) Watt (d) Pascal
    Answer: (b)
  32. Photosynthesis in green plants primarily uses which gas?
    (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) Hydrogen
    Answer: (c)
  33. The powerhouse of the cell is:
    (a) Nucleus (b) Ribosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Golgi body
    Answer: (c)
  34. Normal human body temperature is approximately:
    (a) 35 degrees Celsius (b) 37 degrees Celsius (c) 40 degrees Celsius (d) 33 degrees Celsius
    Answer: (b)
  35. The Raman Effect, commemorated by National Science Day, was discovered by:
    (a) Homi Bhabha (b) C. V. Raman (c) Jagadish Chandra Bose (d) Vikram Sarabhai
    Answer: (b)
  36. India's first satellite, launched in 1975, was named:
    (a) Bhaskara (b) Rohini (c) Aryabhata (d) INSAT-1
    Answer: (c)
  37. ISRO's headquarters is located in which city?
    (a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Chennai (c) Bengaluru (d) Hyderabad
    Answer: (c)
  38. The largest organ of the human body is:
    (a) Liver (b) Skin (c) Heart (d) Lungs
    Answer: (b)
  39. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Right to Education (b) To protect the sovereignty and integrity of India (c) Right to Property (d) Right to Vote
    Answer: (b)
  40. The Election Commission of India is:
    (a) A statutory body only (b) A constitutional body (c) A private body (d) Part of the judiciary
    Answer: (b)
  41. India's national emblem is adapted from:
    (a) The Ashoka Chakra alone (b) The Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath (c) The Red Fort (d) The Konark Sun Temple
    Answer: (b)
  42. The words "Satyameva Jayate" are drawn from which ancient text?
    (a) Rigveda (b) Bhagavad Gita (c) Mundaka Upanishad (d) Manusmriti
    Answer: (c)
  43. Andhra Pradesh's state animal is the:
    (a) Tiger (b) Blackbuck (c) Elephant (d) Nilgai
    Answer: (b)
  44. Andhra Pradesh's state bird, locally called Palapitta, is the:
    (a) Peacock (b) Indian Roller (c) Sparrow (d) Kingfisher
    Answer: (b)
  45. Who was the first President of independent India?
    (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (c) Zakir Husain (d) V. V. Giri
    Answer: (a)
  46. Which constitutional body audits the accounts of the Government of India?
    (a) SEBI (b) CAG (c) RBI (d) CBI
    Answer: (b)
  47. The United Nations was established in which year?
    (a) 1945 (b) 1919 (c) 1950 (d) 1939
    Answer: (a)
  48. The headquarters of the World Health Organization is located in:
    (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Paris (d) The Hague
    Answer: (b)
  49. Which national highway is often cited as the longest in India, spanning north to south?
    (a) NH 44 (b) NH 1 (c) NH 8 (d) NH 16
    Answer: (a)
  50. The administrative capital region of present-day Andhra Pradesh under development is:
    (a) Hyderabad (b) Amaravati (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Vijayawada city proper
    Answer: (b)

Section B: Arithmetic (Questions 51-80)

  1. What is 15% of 400?
    (a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 65
    Answer: (b)
  2. If a number is increased by 20% it becomes 180. What is the original number?
    (a) 150 (b) 144 (c) 160 (d) 140
    Answer: (a)
  3. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 84. Find the larger number.
    (a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 42 (d) 44
    Answer: (b)
  4. A shopkeeper buys an item for Rs. 800 and sells it for Rs. 920. What is his profit percentage?
    (a) 12% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 20%
    Answer: (b)
  5. Simple interest on Rs. 5000 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:
    (a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 1200 (c) Rs. 1100 (d) Rs. 1500
    Answer: (b)
  6. A train covers 360 km in 4 hours. What is its speed?
    (a) 80 km/h (b) 85 km/h (c) 90 km/h (d) 95 km/h
    Answer: (c)
  7. If 5 men can complete a task in 12 days, how many days will 10 men take to complete the same task?
    (a) 6 days (b) 8 days (c) 5 days (d) 10 days
    Answer: (a)
  8. Find the average of 12, 18, 24, 30, and 36.
    (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 20
    Answer: (b)
  9. What is the compound interest on Rs. 2000 at 10% per annum for 2 years?
    (a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 420 (c) Rs. 440 (d) Rs. 410
    Answer: (b)
  10. A man walks at a speed of 5 km/h. How much distance will he cover in 45 minutes?
    (a) 3 km (b) 3.5 km (c) 3.75 km (d) 4 km
    Answer: (c)
  11. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 90. Find the largest number.
    (a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 28 (d) 34
    Answer: (b)
  12. If the cost price of 20 articles equals the selling price of 16 articles, find the profit percentage.
    (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
    Answer: (b)
  13. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How long will both pipes take to fill the tank together?
    (a) 10 minutes (b) 12 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 14 minutes
    Answer: (b)
  14. A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. Find the rate of interest.
    (a) 10% (b) 12.5% (c) 15% (d) 8%
    Answer: (b)
  15. What number should be subtracted from both terms of the ratio 15:19 to make it 3:4?
    (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
    Answer: (a)
  16. If 3x + 7 = 22, find the value of x.
    (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
    Answer: (b)
  17. The perimeter of a square is 64 cm. Find its area.
    (a) 256 sq cm (b) 264 sq cm (c) 240 sq cm (d) 248 sq cm
    Answer: (a)
  18. A car covers a distance at 60 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. Find the average speed for the entire journey.
    (a) 48 km/h (b) 50 km/h (c) 52 km/h (d) 45 km/h
    Answer: (a)
  19. Find the value of 25% of 25% of 800.
    (a) 40 (b) 45 (c) 50 (d) 55
    Answer: (c)
  20. The difference between a number and its three-fifths is 24. Find the number.
    (a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 60 (d) 65
    Answer: (c)
  21. A alone can do a piece of work in 10 days, B alone in 15 days. In how many days will they finish it together?
    (a) 5 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 7 days
    Answer: (b)
  22. If the selling price of an article is Rs. 450 after a 10% discount, find the marked price.
    (a) Rs. 480 (b) Rs. 495 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 510
    Answer: (c)
  23. Find the least common multiple (LCM) of 12 and 18.
    (a) 36 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) 54
    Answer: (a)
  24. The highest common factor (HCF) of 24 and 36 is:
    (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 18
    Answer: (c)
  25. A sum of Rs. 6300 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 2:3:4. Find C's share.
    (a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2800 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 3000
    Answer: (b)
  26. A boat travels 30 km downstream in 2 hours and returns upstream in 3 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
    (a) 10 km/h (b) 12.5 km/h (c) 15 km/h (d) 11 km/h
    Answer: (b)
  27. If 40% of a number is 80, what is 60% of the same number?
    (a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 130
    Answer: (c)
  28. The age of a father is three times that of his son. After 12 years, the father will be twice as old as his son. Find the son's current age.
    (a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 14 years (d) 16 years
    Answer: (b)
  29. A cistern can be filled by a tap in 6 hours and emptied by another tap in 8 hours. If both taps are opened together, in how many hours will the cistern be full?
    (a) 20 hours (b) 22 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 26 hours
    Answer: (c)
  30. What is the value of 0.75 expressed as a fraction in simplest form?
    (a) 3/4 (b) 7/10 (c) 5/6 (d) 2/3
    Answer: (a)

Section C: Reasoning (Questions 81-100)

  1. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
    (a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 44 (d) 38
    Answer: (b)
  2. If CAT is coded as DBU, how is DOG coded?
    (a) EPH (b) EPI (c) FPH (d) EOH
    Answer: (a)
  3. Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the woman related to the man?
    (a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Cousin
    Answer: (a)
  4. A man walks 5 km north, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
    (a) 3 km (b) 5 km (c) 8 km (d) 13 km
    Answer: (a)
  5. In a certain code, MONEY is written as NPOFZ. How is TIGER written in that code?
    (a) UJHFS (b) UJHFT (c) UIHFS (d) UJGFS
    Answer: (a)
  6. Find the odd one out: Apple, Mango, Banana, Potato
    (a) Apple (b) Mango (c) Banana (d) Potato
    Answer: (d)
  7. If all Cats are Dogs, and all Dogs are Birds, then which of the following must be true?
    (a) All Birds are Cats (b) All Cats are Birds (c) No Cats are Birds (d) Some Birds are not Dogs
    Answer: (b)
  8. Complete the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
    (a) T (b) U (c) S (d) V
    Answer: (b)
  9. Ravi is taller than Mohan but shorter than Suresh. Suresh is shorter than Anil. Who is the tallest?
    (a) Ravi (b) Mohan (c) Suresh (d) Anil
    Answer: (d)
  10. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49
    (a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 32 (d) 40
    Answer: (b)
  11. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West, then South becomes:
    (a) North-West (b) South-East (c) East (d) North-East
    Answer: (a)
  12. Choose the word that is not like the others: Circle, Square, Triangle, Sphere
    (a) Circle (b) Square (c) Triangle (d) Sphere
    Answer: (d)
  13. A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
    (a) Father (b) Uncle (c) Brother (d) Grandfather
    Answer: (b)
  14. Which number should replace the question mark? 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    (a) 84 (b) 100 (c) 112 (d) 120
    Answer: (c)
  15. If in a certain language, RED is coded as 18-5-4, how is BLUE coded?
    (a) 2-12-21-5 (b) 2-11-21-5 (c) 2-12-20-5 (d) 3-12-21-5
    Answer: (a)
  16. Statement: All pens are pencils. All pencils are erasers. Conclusion I: All pens are erasers. Conclusion II: Some erasers are pens.
    (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither follows
    Answer: (c)
  17. A clock shows 3:15. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?
    (a) 0 degrees (b) 7.5 degrees (c) 15 degrees (d) 30 degrees
    Answer: (b)
  18. Five friends P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row. Q is to the immediate right of P. R is to the immediate right of Q. If S is at one end and T is between R and S, what is the order from left to right?
    (a) P, Q, R, T, S (b) S, T, R, Q, P (c) P, Q, R, S, T (d) T, P, Q, R, S
    Answer: (a)
  19. Which of the following is the mirror image relationship: 'b' is to 'd' as 'p' is to:
    (a) 'q' (b) 'b' (c) 'd' (d) 'g'
    Answer: (a)
  20. Find the next term: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
    (a) 46 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 44
    Answer: (b)

This completes Mock Test 1. Review every question you answered incorrectly and, more importantly, every question you left unattempted — both categories point to specific, actionable revision priorities as discussed in Chapter 28.

Worked Explanations — Arithmetic Section

The following brief explanations cover the arithmetic questions most likely to trip up candidates under time pressure; use them to check your method, not just your final answer.

  • Q52: If 120% of x = 180, then x = 180 / 1.2 = 150.
  • Q54: Profit = 920 - 800 = 120; profit percent = 120/800 x 100 = 15%.
  • Q57: Men and days are inversely proportional: 5 x 12 = 10 x d, so d = 6 days.
  • Q59: CI = 2000 x (1.1)^2 - 2000 = 2420 - 2000 = 420.
  • Q62: Selling price of 16 articles = cost price of 20 articles, so profit on 16 articles = cost of 4 articles; profit percent = 4/16 x 100 = 25%.
  • Q63: Combined rate = 1/20 + 1/30 = 3/60 + 2/60 = 5/60 = 1/12, so together they take 12 minutes.
  • Q64: Doubling means SI equals the principal itself; using SI = PRT/100, P = P x R x 8/100, giving R = 100/8 = 12.5%.
  • Q68: Average speed for equal distances at two different speeds = 2ab/(a+b) = 2x60x40/100 = 48 km/h.
  • Q71: Let the number be n; n - 0.6n = 24, so 0.4n = 24, n = 60.
  • Q72: Combined rate = 1/10 + 1/15 = 3/30 + 2/30 = 5/30 = 1/6, so together they take 6 days.
  • Q76: C's share = 6300 x 4/9 = 2800 (since the ratio parts sum to 2+3+4 = 9).
  • Q77: Downstream speed = 30/2 = 15 km/h; upstream speed = 30/3 = 10 km/h; speed in still water = (15+10)/2 = 12.5 km/h.
  • Q79: Let father's age = 3s and son's age = s. After 12 years: 3s+12 = 2(s+12), giving 3s+12 = 2s+24, so s = 12.
  • Q80: Net filling rate = 1/6 - 1/8 = 4/24 - 3/24 = 1/24, so the cistern fills in 24 hours.

Worked Explanations — Reasoning Section

  • Q81: The differences between consecutive terms are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 — an increasing even sequence — so the next term is 30 + 12 = 42.
  • Q82: Each letter of the code is shifted forward by one position in the alphabet: C→D, A→B, T→U; applying the same rule to D, O, G gives E, P, H.
  • Q83: The man's grandfather's only son is the man's own father; the father's daughter is therefore the man's sister.
  • Q84: Walking 5 km north, then 3 km east, then 5 km south returns the walker to the same latitude as the start, leaving only the 3 km eastward displacement.
  • Q89: The gaps between letters increase by one each time (2, 3, 4, 5), so after O (gap 5) comes a gap of 6, landing on U.
  • Q90: The sequence is the squares of consecutive integers (2² to 7²); the missing term is 6² = 36.
  • Q91: Each direction is rotated by a fixed 225-degree shift; applying that same rotation to South yields North-West.
  • Q94: Each term doubles the previous one, so 56 x 2 = 112.
  • Q97: At 3:15, the hour hand has moved 7.5 degrees past the 3 o'clock mark (0.5 degrees per minute), while the minute hand sits exactly at the 15-minute mark, giving a 7.5-degree gap.
  • Q100: The differences between consecutive terms rise by 2 each time (5, 7, 9, 11, 13), so the next term is 35 + 13 = 48.

How to Use These Solutions

Do not read these worked explanations before attempting the paper — they are designed for the review phase only. After completing the full 100-question paper under timed conditions, mark your answers against the answer key embedded in each question, then work through the explanations above for every arithmetic and reasoning question you got wrong. For the General Studies section, the correct option is stated directly after each question; where you got a General Studies question wrong, cross-reference the relevant fact against the subject-matter chapters earlier in this book rather than treating the isolated fact in this mock as your only exposure to it. This layered review — attempt, self-check, explanation, cross-reference — is considerably more effective at raising your actual exam-day score than simply noting your total and moving on to the next mock test.

Self-Assessment Guide

SectionQuestionsSuggested Time BudgetWhat Weak Performance Here Usually Indicates
General Studies50Roughly 40-45 minutesContent gaps in specific sub-topics — revisit the relevant subject chapters rather than re-reading this mock alone
Arithmetic30Roughly 35-40 minutesEither conceptual gaps in a specific question type (percentages, time-and-work, ratios) or a pure speed problem — check whether errors or blanks dominate
Reasoning20Roughly 20-25 minutesFormat unfamiliarity — reasoning errors usually cluster around one or two specific formats (blood relations, coding-decoding, series) rather than being spread evenly

Once you have completed and reviewed this mock, proceed to Mock Test 2 in the next chapter, ideally after at least one full day of targeted revision on whichever weak areas this attempt exposed, so that the second mock genuinely tests improvement rather than repeating the same gaps.

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