Study Guide · Chapter 30
Full-Length Mock Test 2 — AP SI/Constable Prelims Pattern (100 MCQs)
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30. Full-Length Mock Test 2 — AP SI/Constable Prelims Pattern (100 MCQs)
This second mock test follows the same overall structure as Mock Test 1 — 50 General Studies questions, 30 Arithmetic questions, and 20 Reasoning questions — but draws on a genuinely different set of facts and problems so that it exercises different corners of your preparation rather than retesting the same recall. Treat it as a second, independent diagnostic rather than a repeat rehearsal, and attempt it under the same strict timed conditions described in the previous chapter.
Instructions Before You Begin
As with Mock Test 1, complete this paper in one continuous timed sitting of 100 to 120 minutes, matching whatever time allowance your actual notification specifies. Resist the temptation to look up an answer mid-test, even for a question you are fairly sure you know but want to double-check — that habit undermines the entire value of a timed mock. Ideally, attempt this test at least a day or two after Mock Test 1, following a focused revision session targeting whatever weaknesses that first attempt exposed, so this second paper gives you a genuine read on your improvement rather than simply repeating the same errors in a new wrapper.
Section A: General Studies (Questions 1-50)
- The Battle of Panipat (first of three) was fought in which year?
(a) 1526 (b) 1556 (c) 1761 (d) 1600
Answer: (a) - Who founded the Mauryan Empire?
(a) Ashoka (b) Chandragupta Maurya (c) Bindusara (d) Samudragupta
Answer: (b) - The Rowlatt Act was passed in which year?
(a) 1919 (b) 1909 (c) 1935 (d) 1942
Answer: (a) - Who gave the title "Father of the Nation" to Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Subhas Chandra Bose (c) Sardar Patel (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (b) - The Government of India Act of 1935 is significant chiefly because it:
(a) Granted full independence (b) Provided a federal structure and provincial autonomy (c) Partitioned India (d) Abolished princely states
Answer: (b) - Which Andhra region ruler dynasty is associated with the rock-cut monuments and early Telugu inscriptions, ruling roughly between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE?
(a) Satavahanas (b) Cholas (c) Pallavas (d) Chalukyas
Answer: (a) - The Simon Commission visited India in which year?
(a) 1927 (b) 1919 (c) 1935 (d) 1942
Answer: (a) - Who was the first Prime Minister of independent India?
(a) Sardar Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer: (b) - Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (c) 61st Amendment (d) 73rd Amendment
Answer: (a) - The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under which Article?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 32 (d) Article 14
Answer: (c) - Panchayati Raj institutions were given constitutional status by which amendment?
(a) 73rd Amendment (b) 74th Amendment (c) 42nd Amendment (d) 61st Amendment
Answer: (a) - Who is regarded as the architect of the Indian Constitution's Directive Principles, being significantly inspired by the Irish Constitution?
(a) B. N. Rau (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) K. M. Munshi
Answer: (a) - The Vijayawada region historically served as an important centre under which Andhra dynasty known for early Telugu literary patronage?
(a) Eastern Chalukyas (b) Marathas (c) Mughals (d) Cholas
Answer: (a) - Who was the last Mughal Emperor, exiled after the 1857 revolt?
(a) Akbar II (b) Bahadur Shah Zafar (c) Shah Alam II (d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (b) - The Revolt of 1857 began at which garrison town?
(a) Meerut (b) Kanpur (c) Lucknow (d) Delhi
Answer: (a) - Which is the second-longest river in India, flowing through Andhra Pradesh and known there as one of its two major rivers?
(a) Godavari (b) Yamuna (c) Kaveri (d) Narmada
Answer: (a) - The Deccan Plateau is bounded on the east by which mountain range, which also passes through Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Western Ghats (b) Eastern Ghats (c) Aravalli Range (d) Vindhya Range
Answer: (b) - Which is the smallest state in India by area?
(a) Sikkim (b) Goa (c) Tripura (d) Nagaland
Answer: (b) - India's Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states approximately, including parts of Andhra Pradesh's neighbouring regions in older undivided geography?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
Answer: (b) - Which desert is located in the Indian state of Rajasthan?
(a) Thar Desert (b) Sahara Desert (c) Gobi Desert (d) Kalahari Desert
Answer: (a) - Which Indian city is often called the "Silicon Valley of India"?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Bengaluru (c) Chennai (d) Pune
Answer: (b) - India's central bank, the Reserve Bank of India, was established in which year?
(a) 1935 (b) 1947 (c) 1950 (d) 1949
Answer: (a) - Which of the following best describes GDP?
(a) Total exports of a country (b) Total value of goods and services produced within a country in a given period (c) Total government spending (d) Total foreign investment received
Answer: (b) - Disinvestment refers to which of the following?
(a) Government selling its stake in public sector enterprises (b) Government increasing taxes (c) Government printing more currency (d) Government borrowing from abroad
Answer: (a) - Which of the following is a direct tax?
(a) GST (b) Income Tax (c) Excise Duty (d) Customs Duty
Answer: (b) - The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was implemented in which year?
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2015 (d) 2018
Answer: (b) - Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B12 (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
Answer: (a) - The chemical symbol for gold is:
(a) Ag (b) Au (c) Gd (d) Go
Answer: (b) - The human heart has how many chambers?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
Answer: (c) - The SI unit of electric current is:
(a) Volt (b) Ohm (c) Ampere (d) Watt
Answer: (c) - Which gas is most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon Dioxide (c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
Answer: (c) - Sound cannot travel through:
(a) Solids (b) Liquids (c) Gases (d) Vacuum
Answer: (d) - Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
(a) AB positive (b) O negative (c) A positive (d) B negative
Answer: (b) - The study of earthquakes is called:
(a) Seismology (b) Meteorology (c) Geology (d) Volcanology
Answer: (a) - Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of titles, except military and academic distinctions?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 18 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 20
Answer: (b) - The minimum age prescribed for a person to become a member of the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
Answer: (b) - The minimum age prescribed for a person to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 21 years
Answer: (b) - Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
(a) The Prime Minister (b) The Chief Minister (c) The President (d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: (c) - The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to whom?
(a) The Prime Minister (b) The President (c) The Finance Minister (d) The Supreme Court
Answer: (b) - Andhra Pradesh's state flower is the:
(a) Lotus (b) Water Lily (c) Jasmine (d) Marigold
Answer: (b) - Andhra Pradesh's state tree is the:
(a) Banyan (b) Neem (c) Peepal (d) Mango
Answer: (b) - India's National Song, "Vande Mataram," was composed by:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (c) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (b) - India's national anthem was first publicly sung in which year?
(a) 1911 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1919
Answer: (a) - The headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is located in:
(a) Geneva (b) Washington, D.C. (c) New York (d) Paris
Answer: (b) - Which Indian scientist is credited with the discovery of the Raman Effect?
(a) Homi Bhabha (b) Vikram Sarabhai (c) C. V. Raman (d) S. Chandrasekhar
Answer: (c) - Who was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal?
(a) Neeraj Chopra (b) Abhinav Bindra (c) Milkha Singh (d) Karnam Malleswari
Answer: (b) - Karnam Malleswari, the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal, competed in which sport?
(a) Wrestling (b) Weightlifting (c) Boxing (d) Athletics
Answer: (b) - National Sports Day in India is observed on 29 August in honour of which sportsperson?
(a) Milkha Singh (b) Major Dhyan Chand (c) P. T. Usha (d) Abhinav Bindra
Answer: (b) - Who among the following is a badminton coach from Hyderabad credited with training multiple Olympic medallists?
(a) Pullela Gopichand (b) P. Gopichand's father (c) Prakash Padukone (d) Vimal Kumar
Answer: (a) - Which sportsperson from Andhra Pradesh won an Olympic silver medal in badminton at the 2016 Rio Games?
(a) Saina Nehwal (b) P. V. Sindhu (c) Jwala Gutta (d) Ashwini Ponnappa
Answer: (b)
Section B: Arithmetic (Questions 51-80)
- What is 35% of 240?
(a) 84 (b) 80 (c) 88 (d) 90
Answer: (a) - A number decreased by 25% equals 90. Find the original number.
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 115
Answer: (c) - The ratio of ages of A and B is 5:7. If the sum of their ages is 60 years, find A's age.
(a) 20 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) 22 years
Answer: (b) - An article is sold at a loss of 12%. If it had been sold for Rs. 88 more, there would have been a gain of 8%. Find the cost price.
(a) Rs. 420 (b) Rs. 440 (c) Rs. 400 (d) Rs. 450
Answer: (b) - Simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 6% per annum is Rs. 600. Find the principal.
(a) Rs. 4000 (b) Rs. 5000 (c) Rs. 5500 (d) Rs. 6000
Answer: (b) - A car covers a distance of 250 km in 5 hours. What is its average speed?
(a) 45 km/h (b) 50 km/h (c) 55 km/h (d) 40 km/h
Answer: (b) - 8 workers can complete a job in 15 days. How many workers are needed to complete the same job in 10 days?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16
Answer: (b) - Find the average of the first 10 natural numbers.
(a) 5 (b) 5.5 (c) 6 (d) 4.5
Answer: (b) - Find the compound interest on Rs. 4000 at 5% per annum for 2 years.
(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 410 (c) Rs. 405 (d) Rs. 420
Answer: (b) - A cyclist covers 18 km in 1 hour 12 minutes. Find his speed in km/h.
(a) 12 km/h (b) 15 km/h (c) 18 km/h (d) 20 km/h
Answer: (b) - The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 63. Find the largest number.
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 25
Answer: (c) - If the cost price of 15 articles equals the selling price of 12 articles, find the profit percentage.
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 15%
Answer: (b) - Two taps can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. How long will both taps take to fill it together?
(a) 8 minutes (b) 8.57 minutes (c) 9 minutes (d) 10 minutes
Answer: (b) - A sum of money triples itself in 10 years at simple interest. Find the rate of interest.
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
Answer: (b) - What number should be added to both terms of the ratio 5:11 to make it 3:4?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Answer: (c) - If 4x - 9 = 23, find the value of x.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
Answer: (c) - The perimeter of a rectangle is 56 cm and its length is 16 cm. Find its area.
(a) 176 sq cm (b) 192 sq cm (c) 184 sq cm (d) 168 sq cm
Answer: (b) - A train travels 300 km at 60 km/h and returns at 50 km/h. Find the average speed for the whole journey.
(a) 52 km/h (b) 54.5 km/h (c) 55 km/h (d) 53 km/h
Answer: (b) - Find the value of 20% of 40% of 500.
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45
Answer: (c) - The difference between a number and its two-thirds is 28. Find the number.
(a) 78 (b) 80 (c) 84 (d) 90
Answer: (c) - A can complete a job in 8 days, B in 12 days. In how many days will they finish it working together?
(a) 4.5 days (b) 4.8 days (c) 5 days (d) 5.2 days
Answer: (b) - If the selling price of an article after a 20% discount is Rs. 640, find its marked price.
(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 780 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 820
Answer: (c) - Find the LCM of 15 and 20.
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 40
Answer: (b) - The HCF of 28 and 42 is:
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28
Answer: (b) - A sum of Rs. 7200 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 3:4:5. Find B's share.
(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2400 (c) Rs. 2600 (d) Rs. 2800
Answer: (b) - A boat covers 24 km downstream in 2 hours and the same distance upstream in 3 hours. Find the speed of the current.
(a) 1 km/h (b) 2 km/h (c) 3 km/h (d) 2.5 km/h
Answer: (b) - If 30% of a number is 60, what is 70% of the same number?
(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150
Answer: (c) - A mother's age is four times her daughter's age. After 16 years, the mother's age will be twice her daughter's age. Find the daughter's present age.
(a) 6 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years (d) 12 years
Answer: (b) - A cistern is filled by tap A in 10 hours and emptied by tap B in 15 hours. If both are opened together, how long will it take to fill the cistern?
(a) 25 hours (b) 30 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 28 hours
Answer: (b) - Express 0.625 as a fraction in simplest form.
(a) 5/8 (b) 3/5 (c) 7/12 (d) 4/7
Answer: (a)
Section C: Reasoning (Questions 81-100)
- Find the next number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
(a) 91 (b) 93 (c) 95 (d) 89
Answer: (c) - If BOOK is coded as CPPL, how is PAGE coded?
(a) QBHF (b) QBHE (c) QAHF (d) PBHF
Answer: (a) - Pointing to a man, a woman says, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Grandmother
Answer: (a) - A person walks 6 km east, then turns left and walks 8 km, then turns left again and walks 6 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 6 km (b) 8 km (c) 10 km (d) 14 km
Answer: (b) - In a certain code, PAPER is written as QBQFS. How is PENCIL written in that code?
(a) QFODJM (b) QFOCJL (c) QFNDJL (d) QDODJM
Answer: (a) - Find the odd one out: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Bengaluru
Answer: (a) (the other three are coastal/port cities while Delhi is not) - If all Roses are Flowers, and all Flowers are Plants, then which of the following must be true?
(a) All Plants are Roses (b) All Roses are Plants (c) No Roses are Plants (d) Some Plants are not Flowers
Answer: (b) - Complete the series: Z, X, U, Q, ?
(a) L (b) M (c) N (d) K
Answer: (a) - Meena is shorter than Reena but taller than Seema. Reena is shorter than Tara. Who is the tallest?
(a) Meena (b) Reena (c) Seema (d) Tara
Answer: (d) - Find the missing number: 3, 8, 15, 24, ?, 48
(a) 33 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 34
Answer: (b) - If North becomes East, East becomes South, then West becomes:
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) South-West
Answer: (a) - Choose the word that is not like the others: Rose, Lily, Jasmine, Mango
(a) Rose (b) Lily (c) Jasmine (d) Mango
Answer: (d) - P is the sister of Q. Q is the brother of R. R is the son of S. How is P related to S?
(a) Daughter (b) Niece (c) Sister (d) Mother
Answer: (a) - Find the missing number: 9, 18, 36, 72, ?
(a) 108 (b) 126 (c) 144 (d) 136
Answer: (c) - If in a certain language, GOLD is coded as 7-15-12-4, how is SILVER coded?
(a) 19-9-12-22-5-18 (b) 19-9-11-22-5-18 (c) 18-9-12-22-5-18 (d) 19-9-12-21-5-18
Answer: (a) - Statement: All squares are rectangles. All rectangles are quadrilaterals. Conclusion I: All squares are quadrilaterals. Conclusion II: Some quadrilaterals are squares.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither follows
Answer: (c) - A clock shows 6:30. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?
(a) 0 degrees (b) 10 degrees (c) 15 degrees (d) 20 degrees
Answer: (c) - Five students M, N, O, P, Q are sitting in a row. N is to the immediate left of M. O is to the immediate left of N. If Q is at one end and P is between O and Q, what is the order from left to right?
(a) Q, P, O, N, M (b) P, Q, O, N, M (c) Q, P, N, O, M (d) M, N, O, P, Q
Answer: (a) - Which letter is the mirror image counterpart in the relationship: 'p' is to 'q' as 'b' is to:
(a) 'd' (b) 'p' (c) 'q' (d) 'g'
Answer: (a) - Find the next term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38
Answer: (c)
Worked Explanations — Arithmetic Section
- Q52: If 75% of x = 90, then x = 90 / 0.75 = 120.
- Q54: Let cost price = C. Selling at 12% loss gives 0.88C; selling at 8% gain gives 1.08C. The difference, 0.20C, equals Rs. 88, so C = 440.
- Q57: Using the inverse proportion of workers and days: 8 x 15 = w x 10, so w = 12.
- Q59: CI = 4000 x (1.05)^2 - 4000 = 4410 - 4000 = 410.
- Q63: Combined rate = 1/15 + 1/20 = 4/60 + 3/60 = 7/60, so time taken = 60/7 ≈ 8.57 minutes.
- Q64: Tripling means the interest earned equals twice the principal; using SI = PRT/100, 2P = P x R x 10/100, giving R = 20%.
- Q68: Average speed for equal distances = 2ab/(a+b) = 2 x 60 x 50 / 110 = 6000/110 ≈ 54.5 km/h.
- Q71: Let the number be n; n - (2/3)n = 28, so (1/3)n = 28, n = 84.
- Q72: Combined rate = 1/8 + 1/12 = 3/24 + 2/24 = 5/24, so time taken = 24/5 = 4.8 days.
- Q76: B's share = 7200 x 4/12 = 2400 (ratio parts sum to 3+4+5 = 12).
- Q77: Downstream speed = 24/2 = 12 km/h; upstream speed = 24/3 = 8 km/h; speed of current = (12-8)/2 = 2 km/h.
- Q79: Let daughter's age = d and mother's age = 4d. After 16 years: 4d+16 = 2(d+16), giving 4d+16 = 2d+32, so d = 8.
- Q80: Net filling rate = 1/10 - 1/15 = 3/30 - 2/30 = 1/30, so the cistern fills in 30 hours.
Worked Explanations — Reasoning Section
- Q81: Each term is roughly double the previous term plus 1 (5x2+1=11, 11x2+1=23, 23x2+1=47), so the next term is 47x2+1=95.
- Q82: Each letter shifts forward by one position: B→C, O→P, O→P, K→L; applying the same rule to P, A, G, E gives Q, B, H, F.
- Q83: "The only daughter of my mother" is the woman herself; if that person is the man's mother, then the woman is the man's mother.
- Q84: Walking 6 km east, then turning left (north) 8 km, then turning left again (west) 6 km cancels the eastward displacement, leaving only the 8 km northward displacement.
- Q89: The letters skip by an increasing number of positions (Z to X is 2 back, X to U is 3 back, U to Q is 4 back), so Q to the next letter skips 5 back, landing on L.
- Q90: The differences between consecutive terms increase by 2 each time (5, 7, 9, 11, 13), so the missing term is 24 + 11 = 35.
- Q94: Each term doubles the previous one (9, 18, 36, 72), so the next term is 72 x 2 = 144.
- Q97: At 6:30, the hour hand sits halfway between 6 and 7, i.e. at 195 degrees, while the minute hand sits at the 6 mark, i.e. 180 degrees, giving a 15-degree gap.
- Q100: The differences between consecutive terms increase by 2 each time (3, 5, 7, 9), so the next term is 26 + 11 = 37.
Comparing Your Two Mock-Test Attempts
Once you have completed both Mock Test 1 and Mock Test 2, the most valuable analysis is not either score in isolation but the comparison between them. Look specifically at three things: whether your overall completion rate improved between attempts, indicating better pacing; whether your accuracy on questions you did attempt improved, indicating better content command; and whether the specific sub-topics or question formats that caused errors in the first attempt still caused errors in the second, indicating a gap that a single round of revision has not yet closed. A genuine improvement across all three measures between your two attempts is a strong signal that your preparation strategy is working; if scores are similar but the specific weak areas have shifted, that may simply reflect the different question mix between the two papers rather than a real change in your ability, and is worth a third independent practice attempt using questions from elsewhere in your preparation material before drawing firm conclusions.
This concludes both full-length mock tests in this book. Combined with the subject-matter chapters and the pattern-analysis guidance in Chapter 28, these two papers are designed to give you a complete, realistic simulation of the AP SI/Constable Preliminary examination — use them as the final calibration step in your preparation, not as a one-time event.
Self-Assessment Guide
| Section | Questions | Suggested Time Budget | What Weak Performance Here Usually Indicates |
|---|---|---|---|
| General Studies | 50 | Roughly 40-45 minutes | Content gaps in specific sub-topics — cross-check against the relevant subject chapters earlier in this book rather than re-reading this mock alone |
| Arithmetic | 30 | Roughly 35-40 minutes | Either a conceptual gap in a specific question type (compound interest, boats-and-streams, ratio-sharing problems tend to be the most commonly missed) or a pure speed problem — separate errors from unattempted questions to diagnose which |
| Reasoning | 20 | Roughly 20-25 minutes | Format unfamiliarity — check specifically whether coding-decoding, series, or seating-arrangement questions account for a disproportionate share of your errors |
If your performance on this second mock still shows a weak spot from the first attempt, treat that as high-priority, high-confidence signal — a weakness that survives two independently constructed papers is a genuine gap rather than a fluke of question selection, and deserves focused revision from the relevant subject-matter chapter before your actual exam. Conversely, an area that was weak in Mock Test 1 but solid in Mock Test 2 is good evidence that your intervening revision worked — a useful confirmation that your overall study method, not just your content knowledge, is on the right track.
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