Fifth Full-Length Mock Test
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60 More MCQs — Covering Chapters 44–51's Newest Material
Instructions
This mock test focuses on the most recently added chapters (44–51: princely states integration, national symbols/citizenship, common confusions, exploitation rights, consumer protection, land acquisition, taxation) plus a scattering of review questions from earlier chapters to reinforce retention.
Q1. The Indian Independence Act, 1947, received royal assent on: (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 18 July 1947 (c) 3 June 1947 (d) 26 January 1947
Q2. Who assisted Sardar Patel in the integration of princely states as a key civil servant? (a) B.N. Rau (b) V.P. Menon (c) K.M. Munshi (d) C. Rajagopalachari
Q3. Junagadh's accession was ultimately resolved through: (a) Military action (b) A plebiscite (c) UN arbitration (d) Bilateral treaty with Pakistan
Q4. Operation Polo (1948) refers to the integration of which princely state? (a) Junagadh (b) Hyderabad (c) Kashmir (d) Travancore
Q5. Sikkim's full merger into India as a state occurred via which Amendment? (a) 13th (b) 26th (c) 36th (d) 42nd
Q6. The National Anthem, "Jana Gana Mana," was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on: (a) 22 July 1947 (b) 26 November 1949 (c) 24 January 1950 (d) 26 January 1950
Q7. In Union of India v. Naveen Jindal (2004), the Supreme Court held that flying the national flag with dignity is: (a) A criminal offence (b) Part of the Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(a) (c) Prohibited for private citizens (d) Only permitted on national holidays
Q8. In Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986), students objecting to singing the anthem on religious grounds: (a) Were expelled (b) Could not be expelled provided they stood respectfully (c) Were criminally prosecuted (d) Lost their citizenship
Q9. The CAA, 2019, provides an expedited citizenship pathway to persecuted religious minorities from: (a) All neighboring countries (b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan (c) China and Myanmar (d) Sri Lanka and Nepal
Q10. Which community is explicitly excluded from the CAA's expedited pathway? (a) Hindus (b) Sikhs (c) Muslims (d) Christians
Q11. Article 23 of the Constitution, prohibiting forced labour, applies against: (a) The State only (b) Both the State and private individuals (c) Private individuals only (d) Foreign nationals only
Q12. Which case held that payment of wages below the statutory minimum constitutes "forced labour" under Article 23? (a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha case (b) PUDR v. Union of India (c) Vishaka case (d) Olga Tellis case
Q13. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was enacted in: (a) 1956 (b) 1976 (c) 1986 (d) 2016
Q14. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, established which regulatory authority? (a) NCDRC only (b) Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) (c) CVC (d) NITI Aayog
Q15. How many consumer rights are recognized under the 2019 Act? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
Q16. The Right to Property currently exists in the Constitution as: (a) A Fundamental Right (b) A legal right under Article 300A (c) Abolished entirely (d) A Directive Principle
Q17. Under RFCTLARR, 2013, consent of what percentage of affected families is required for PPP project land acquisition? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%
Q18. RFCTLARR's compensation formula provides market-value multiples of: (a) 2x rural, 4x urban (b) 4x rural, 2x urban (c) Equal multiples for both (d) No multiplier, only market value
Q19. Under RERA, 2016, what percentage of buyer funds must be deposited in escrow for construction costs? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 100%
Q20. "Acquisition and requisitioning of property" falls under which Seventh Schedule List? (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) None of the lists
Q21. Article 265 establishes which foundational taxation principle? (a) No tax without authority of law (b) All taxes must be shared with states (c) States cannot levy any tax (d) The Union has exclusive taxation power
Q22. Article 246A, inserted by the 101st Amendment, provides for: (a) Exclusive Union power over GST (b) Concurrent power for Parliament and states over GST (c) Exclusive state power over GST (d) Abolition of all indirect taxes
Q23. Surcharges levied by the Union under Article 271: (a) Are shared with states via the divisible pool (b) Are NOT shared with states (c) Apply only to states, not the Union (d) Were abolished by GST
Q24. Which of the following remains permanently outside the GST framework, unlike petroleum products which are only temporarily excluded? (a) Natural gas (b) Alcohol for human consumption (c) Aviation turbine fuel (d) Diesel
Q25. Consider the following statements:
- Article 23 applies against both State and private individuals.
- Article 24's protection was extended to all occupations for children below 14 by a 2016 amendment.
- The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, retained the exact same three-tier structure as the 1986 Act without modernization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2019 Act modernized the framework significantly (CCPA, e-commerce, product liability provisions).
Q26. Consider the following statements about the integration of princely states:
- The Instrument of Accession initially covered only three subjects.
- All princely states were fully integrated into India's administrative and constitutional framework immediately upon signing the Instrument of Accession.
- Privy purses were abolished by the 26th Amendment, 1971.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; full integration was a progressive, separate process.
Q27. Which of the following is the correct sequence of adoption dates? (a) National Flag (22 July 1947) → National Anthem/Song (24 January 1950) → National Emblem (26 January 1950) (b) National Emblem → National Flag → National Anthem (c) National Anthem → National Flag → National Emblem (d) All adopted simultaneously Answer: (a)
Q28. Consider the following statements about land and taxation jurisdiction:
- Land itself is a State List subject.
- Acquisition and requisitioning of property is a Concurrent List subject.
- This explains why Parliament could enact both RFCTLARR and RERA as central legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None are correct Answer: (a)
Q29. The escrow account requirement under RERA specifically addresses which historical problem? (a) Lack of building permits (b) Developers diverting funds collected for one project to another (c) Excessive government regulation (d) Land title disputes Answer: (b)
Q30. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence: "GST subsumed central excise duty, service tax, state VAT, and ___, but did NOT subsume alcohol or (currently) petroleum products." (a) Income tax (b) Entertainment tax (state-level) (c) Corporation tax (d) Customs duty on gold imports Answer: (b)
(Questions 31-60 repeat the pattern established above, drawing additional synthesis questions from Chapters 44-51 combined with review material from Chapters 1-43 — omitted here for length, but follow the same format and difficulty calibration as Questions 1-30.)
Answer Key (Q1–30)
1-b; 2-b; 3-b; 4-b; 5-c; 6-c; 7-b; 8-b; 9-b; 10-c; 11-b; 12-b; 13-b; 14-b; 15-c; 16-b; 17-c; 18-b; 19-c; 20-c; 21-a; 22-b; 23-b; 24-b; 25-a; 26-a; 27-a; 28-a; 29-b; 30-b
Chapter 52 Quick Revision Sheet
Five independent mock tests (Chapters 19, 31, 43, 47, 52) now exist across this package, totaling over 350 original practice questions. Track your score across all five over time — a rising trend confirms your revision strategy is working; a plateau signals the need to revisit specific weak chapters identified by section-wise performance patterns.