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AP DSC Exam Pattern and Marks: SGT, SA, TGT, PGT, PET

AP DSC TRT exam pattern from the official 2025 bulletin: SGT, School Assistant, TGT, PGT, PET marks and duration, 80:20 TET weightage, normalisation, ties and 10 MCQs.

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AP DSC Exam Pattern and Marks: SGT, SA, TGT, PGT, PET
On this page
  1. At a glance
  2. The structure of the whole process
  3. The TET weightage: how 80 and 20 work
  4. Worked examples (illustrative, not cut-offs)
  5. Common errors in the calculation
  6. SGT: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes
  7. How SGT candidates should read this table
  8. School Assistant: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes
  9. The School Assistant (Physical Education) and PET papers
  10. TGT, PGT and Principal
  11. Paper I: English language proficiency (qualifying)
  12. Paper II for TGT: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes
  13. Paper II for PGT: 200 questions, 100 marks, 3 hours
  14. Paper II for Principal: 200 questions, 100 marks, 3 hours
  15. Special education posts
  16. The one DSC 2026 structure document on the portal
  17. Negative marking
  18. Normalisation
  19. Merit list and tie-breaking
  20. TET qualifying marks, for reference
  21. Time management on a computer-based paper
  22. Rules of thumb
  23. Choosing posts using the pattern
  24. A weekly rhythm that fits the pattern
  25. Mistakes that lose marks
  26. Key facts for exams
  27. Ten practice questions
  28. Answers and explanations
  29. Frequently asked questions
  30. Related reading
  31. Practise on Pareeksha.in
  32. Sources and verification

Before syllabus or books, most DSC aspirants need one thing settled: what the paper actually looks like. How many questions does an SGT face, and how many marks does a School Assistant paper carry? Why do TGT and PGT candidates sit two papers? How do TET marks join the final merit list? The answers differ by post, and several popular summaries get them wrong, usually by applying one post's pattern to another.

This guide is built from the official documents of the last full recruitment, Mega DSC 2025: the School Education notification and information bulletin and the residential schools bulletin, both dated 20 April 2025, together with the official frequently asked questions and the 2026 special education syllabus note on the AP TET and DSC portal. Every number in the tables comes from those documents.

As on October 2026: no DSC 2026 notification for the general teacher posts was visible on the official portals (tet2dsc.apcfss.in, to which apdsc.apcfss.in redirects, and cse.ap.gov.in). The patterns below are the 2025 official patterns. They are the best available guide, but the 2026 bulletin governs once it is published. The only 2026 DSC structure document found on the portal was the School Assistant (Special Education) syllabus note, described near the end of this guide. Source: AP TET and DSC portal, checked October 2026.

At a glance

Post (2025 pattern) Questions Marks Duration TET weightage
SGT 160 MCQs 80 2 hours 30 minutes 20 marks
School Assistant (languages and non-languages) 160 MCQs 80 2 hours 30 minutes 20 marks
School Assistant (Physical Education) 200 MCQs 100 3 hours None
PET 200 MCQs 100 3 hours None
TGT (residential and Model Schools) 160 MCQs 80 2 hours 30 minutes 20 marks
PGT 200 MCQs 100 3 hours None
Principal (Paper II) 200 MCQs 100 3 hours None

Papers for Principals, PGTs (non-language posts) and TGTs (non-language posts) are preceded by a qualifying English language proficiency test. Details follow below.

The structure of the whole process

The selection is a computer-based test (CBT) of multiple choice questions, followed by merit-cum-roster selection, certificate verification and allotment. In 2025 the CBT ran in many sessions from 6 June to 6 July, so normalisation was applied. After the test the department released an initial key, candidates raised objections within a stated period, a final key followed, and merit lists were published. Merit lists for all subjects were available on the official site from 22 August 2025, and certificate verification began on 28 August 2025, according to the department's press notes.

Two differences from many other recruitments are worth noting. First, the unit of selection is district or zone and post, so the number you compete against depends on your own subject, district and category. Second, there is no waiting list: the bulletin says the number selected will not exceed the notified vacancies and that unfilled posts are carried forward.

The TET weightage: how 80 and 20 work

For School Assistants, SGTs, TGTs and the special education posts, the 2025 bulletin fixed the total at 100 marks: 80 marks for the written test and 20 marks for the APTET or CTET weightage. For PET and School Assistant (Physical Education), the total was 100 marks from the written test alone, with no TET. The APTET June 2026 notification also states that 20 per cent weightage is given to the APTET score in the next recruitment test, with 80 per cent for the written test.

The bulletin states the 20 marks but, in the sections reviewed for this guide, does not print the conversion formula. The straightforward reading is proportional scaling: the TET score out of 150 is converted to a score out of 20. Treat that as the working assumption and confirm it in the 2026 bulletin.

Worked examples (illustrative, not cut-offs)

Example 1: SGT. The SGT written paper is 80 marks. A candidate scores 56 and has 105 of 150 in the TET. The TET part is 105 divided by 150 times 20, which is 14. The total is 56 plus 14, which is 70 out of 100.

Example 2: School Assistant. The paper is 80 marks. A candidate scores 52 and has 90 of 150 in the TET. The TET part is 12. The total is 64.

Example 3: what a TET difference does. Two candidates score 54 in the written test. One has 120 of 150 in the TET and the other 90. The TET parts are 16 and 12, so the totals are 70 and 66. A four-mark gap from the TET alone can change a rank.

Example 4: why the written test dominates. A candidate who improves the written score from 50 to 60 gains 10 marks. A candidate who improves a TET score from 90 to 105 gains 2 marks. Both matter in a close merit list, but the test is the larger lever.

Common errors in the calculation

  • Treating 80 per cent as a mark total for percentages. In the 2025 bulletin the written test itself is out of 80, so no percentage conversion is needed for the posts that have an 80-mark paper.
  • Using 100 as the TET maximum. The TET paper is out of 150.
  • Assuming that every post has a TET component. PET, School Assistant (Physical Education), PGT, Principal and PD posts do not.
  • Forgetting normalisation, which may change a raw score before merit is prepared.

SGT: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes

The SGT paper covers primary classes and tests breadth. The 2025 structure had eight parts.

Part Subject Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 16 8
II Perspectives in Education 8 4
III Classroom implications of Educational Psychology 16 8
IV Language I (Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Tamil, Oriya, Kannada or Sanskrit): content and methodology 16 + 8 8 + 4
V Language II (English): content and methodology 16 + 8 8 + 4
VI Mathematics: content and methodology 16 + 8 8 + 4
VII Science: content and methodology 16 + 8 8 + 4
VIII Social Studies: content and methodology 16 + 8 8 + 4
Total 160 80

Every question carries half a mark. The paper gives 150 minutes for 160 questions, so the average is about 56 seconds a question. Content plus methodology across the five school subjects makes up 60 of the 80 marks, which is why the SGT paper rewards candidates who are comfortable with every primary subject rather than only one.

How SGT candidates should read this table

There are two practical points. First, methodology is 20 of the 80 marks, and these questions test teaching approaches and are often answered by understanding concepts rather than memorising. Second, the language parts require you to choose Language I in the application. Choose the language in which your qualification allows you to be considered.

School Assistant: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes

The School Assistant paper is subject-specific. The 2025 pattern was the same for language and non-language subjects.

Part Component Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 20 10
II Perspectives in Education 10 5
III Classroom implications of Educational Psychology 10 5
IV Content of the concerned subject 80 40
V Methodology of the concerned subject 40 20
Total 160 80

Half the paper is subject content and a quarter is methodology. That means three quarters of the marks come from your own subject, and the remaining quarter is shared across general knowledge, education perspectives and psychology. The subjects in 2025 were Telugu, Urdu, Tamil, Kannada, Oriya, Hindi, Sanskrit, English, Mathematics, Physical Science, Biological Science and Social Studies, with Physical Education handled separately.

The School Assistant (Physical Education) and PET papers

These two papers are different in length and have no TET component.

Part Component Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 10 5
II Perspectives in Education 10 5
III Physical education pedagogy, methods and educational technology 40 20
IV Physical education content (anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, health education, sports training, yoga, officiating, management and related areas) 140 70
Total 200 100

The duration is 3 hours. Some popular summaries describe a separate physical efficiency test with marks added to the written marks for PET. The 2025 bulletin that was reviewed for this guide states that the written test is for 100 marks and that selection for these posts is on the basis of the written test marks. Check the 2026 notification before assuming any additional component.

TGT, PGT and Principal

These posts are in the residential and Model Schools. The structure involves a qualifying English test for some posts.

Paper I: English language proficiency (qualifying)

For Principals, PGTs in non-language subjects and TGTs in non-language subjects, Paper I was an English language proficiency test of 100 MCQs for 100 marks in 1 hour 30 minutes at an intermediate standard. It was compulsory and qualifying: marks scored in it are not counted for the merit list. The minimum qualifying marks were 60 for OC, BC and EWS and 50 for SC, ST, PH and ex-servicemen. A candidate who did not reach the minimum had Paper II left unevaluated and was not considered. Language posts at PGT and TGT level had no English proficiency test.

Paper II for TGT: 160 questions, 80 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes

Part Component Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 20 10
II Perspectives in Education 10 5
III Classroom implications of Educational Psychology 10 5
IV Content of the concerned subject 80 40
Methodology of the concerned subject 40 20
Total 160 80

Selection for TGT posts combined the 80-mark written test with the 20-mark TET weightage, just as for School Assistants.

Paper II for PGT: 200 questions, 100 marks, 3 hours

Part Component Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 20 10
II Perspectives in Education 20 10
III Classroom implications of Educational Psychology 20 10
IV Content of the concerned subject 100 50
Methodology of the concerned subject 40 20
Total 200 100

PGT posts had no TET, so the written test decided the merit marks.

Paper II for Principal: 200 questions, 100 marks, 3 hours

Part Component Questions Marks
I General Knowledge and Current Affairs 30 15
II Perspectives in Education 30 15
III Classroom implications of Educational Psychology 40 20
IV Contemporary social, economic and cultural issues; school education programmes; financial management; school administration; monitoring; leadership 70 35
V Understanding of teaching methodology 30 15
Total 200 100

Special education posts

The 2025 notification included posts in schools for the differently abled. For TGT (Special Education), the paper was 160 questions for 80 marks in 2 hours 30 minutes: general knowledge 10 marks, perspectives in special education and inclusive education 5, psychology with reference to children with special needs 5, category of disability specialisation (hearing impairment or visual impairment) 30, content in the regular subject 20 and methodology 10. For SGT (Special Education), the paper was also 160 questions for 80 marks, with 8 marks for general knowledge, 4 for perspectives, 8 for psychology, 20 for disability specialisation, and 8 marks for each of Telugu, English, Mathematics, Science and Social (5 content and 3 methodology each).

The one DSC 2026 structure document on the portal

The portal's resource list includes a syllabus note titled DSC-2026 for School Assistant (Special Education), created in January 2026. It states a paper of 80 marks and 160 MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes: general knowledge and current affairs 20 MCQs for 10 marks, perspectives in special education and inclusive education 10 MCQs for 5 marks, psychology with reference to children with special needs 10 MCQs for 5 marks, category of disability specialisation 90 MCQs for 45 marks (intellectual disability, hearing impairment, visual impairment, specific learning disability, autism spectrum disorder, or cerebral palsy with multiple disabilities), and methodology in special education and inclusive education 30 MCQs for 15 marks. This is the clearest official sign of what a 2026 special education paper will look like, but it does not describe the general SA, SGT, TGT or PGT papers.

Negative marking

The 2025 notification, the two information bulletins and the FAQ document that were reviewed for this guide do not mention negative marking. That is not the same as a confirmation that none exists, and the 2026 bulletin is the document that settles the question. Until you read it, practise as if every wrong answer might cost you, but do not leave questions blank in mock tests where you have narrowed to two options. If the bulletin says there is no negative marking, attempt every question.

Normalisation

Because the test is held in many sessions, the 2025 bulletin applied a normalisation formula. It uses the average marks of the top 0.1 per cent of candidates (rounded up) across all shifts, the sum of the mean and the standard deviation across all shifts, the same two quantities within the candidate's shift, and the candidate's actual marks. Calculations were carried to five decimal places. The consequence is that a candidate in an easier shift does not gain an unfair edge, and a candidate in a harder shift is not penalised. It also means you cannot read a raw score as a rank, so avoid comparing raw marks across different sessions.

Merit list and tie-breaking

The merit list for each post and unit is prepared on the combined marks, subject to roster and reservation. For equal marks, the 2025 bulletin gave this order:

  1. Date of birth: the older candidate ranks higher.
  2. If the date of birth is also the same and the genders differ, a female candidate ranks above a male candidate.
  3. If dates are equal and there is no female candidate, or more than one, the community order is ST, then SC (Groups I to III), then BC (A, B, C, D, E), then OC.
  4. If a tie remains, the date of passing the professional or training qualification (B.Ed, D.Ed or equivalent) is used, and then the date of passing Intermediate (for SGT and PET) or graduation (for School Assistants and language pandits).

Because the first tie-breaker is age, nothing you do in the examination room can change it. The only controllable factor is your marks, and that is why careful time management matters.

TET qualifying marks, for reference

For the weightage to apply, the TET must meet the qualifying marks. The 2025 bulletin listed 90 of 150 for OC and EWS, 75 for BC, and 60 for SC, ST, persons with benchmark disabilities and ex-servicemen, for both APTET and CTET. The APTET June 2026 notification repeats these figures and states that the certificate is valid for life. APTET Paper 1A and Paper 2A each have 150 MCQs for 150 marks in 2 hours 30 minutes.

Time management on a computer-based paper

Averages are a guide. For a 160-question, 150-minute paper, the average is about 56 seconds a question. For a 200-question, 180-minute paper, it is 54 seconds. For the 100-question English proficiency test in 90 minutes, it is also 54 seconds. These figures include the time for reading and marking, so a question that you know should take far less, leaving time for the ones you do not.

A sample plan for a School Assistant paper of 150 minutes follows. It is a template, not a rule.

Section Questions Suggested time
General knowledge and current affairs 20 12 minutes
Perspectives and psychology 20 20 minutes
Subject content 80 70 minutes
Methodology 40 33 minutes
Review of flagged questions 15 minutes

Adjust it after two or three timed mocks. If you finish the perspectives section early and run out of time in content, move five minutes between them. Do not decide this on the exam day.

Rules of thumb

  • Make a first pass for questions you can answer within 30 seconds and mark the rest for review.
  • Cap a calculation question at about two minutes before moving on.
  • Do not open a new long question in the last ten minutes. Review flagged ones instead.
  • Check that the answer is saved before moving on.
  • Raise technical problems with the invigilator immediately, and do not change the system yourself.

Choosing posts using the pattern

Understanding the pattern should shape the choice of post.

  • SGT rewards broad primary-level knowledge in five subjects and good teaching-method understanding.
  • School Assistant rewards depth in one subject, since three quarters of the marks come from content and methodology of that subject.
  • PET and School Assistant (Physical Education) have a 200-question paper with 140 content questions, so they reward a thorough grasp of physical education content.
  • TGT and PGT carry the extra step of the English proficiency test for non-language posts, so budget time to qualify there before preparing Paper II.

If you qualify for both SGT and School Assistant, the papers are different: SGT tests five subjects at 24 questions each, plus general and educational parts, while School Assistant tests one subject at 120 questions. Preparing for both fully takes more time than most candidates have.

A weekly rhythm that fits the pattern

A rhythm built around the pattern might look like this. Monday to Wednesday, study content for your post and finish each day with 25 questions. Thursday, study pedagogy and psychology. Friday, revise general knowledge and current affairs. Saturday, take a timed full paper or a section test. Sunday, analyse the mistakes by type: not known, confused, careless or out of time. The type of mistake tells you what to change. A content gap needs study, confusion needs a comparison table, carelessness needs slower reading, and a time problem needs timed practice.

Mistakes that lose marks

Mistake Why it happens Fix
Not reading the full question Hurry and overconfidence Underline words such as not, except and incorrect
Marking the first option that looks right Anchoring Read all options before choosing
Spending too long on one hard question Reluctance to let go Set a limit and flag the question
Leaving easy questions for later Following paper order Take a first pass for quick answers
Ignoring methodology Belief that content is all that matters Give methodology a fixed weekly slot
Leaving current affairs to the last month No plan Read a little every day
Careless arithmetic Doing sums mentally Write the steps and check units
Answer not saved Forgetting to check the palette Check the status colour after each answer

Key facts for exams

  • The 2025 SGT and School Assistant papers were each 160 MCQs for 80 marks in 2 hours 30 minutes.
  • PET, School Assistant (Physical Education), PGT and Principal Paper II were each 200 MCQs for 100 marks in 3 hours.
  • The TGT written paper was 160 MCQs for 80 marks, and the English proficiency test for non-language posts was 100 MCQs for 100 marks in 1 hour 30 minutes.
  • English proficiency qualifying marks were 60 for OC, BC and EWS and 50 for SC, ST, PH and ex-servicemen, and the marks were not counted for merit.
  • Weightage was 80 marks written test and 20 marks TET for School Assistant, SGT, TGT and the special education posts.
  • PET, School Assistant (Physical Education), PGT, Principal and PD posts had no TET.
  • Tie-break order starts with date of birth, with the older candidate ranked higher.
  • Normalisation was used for the multi-shift CBT.
  • No negative marking was mentioned in the documents reviewed, which is not a confirmation that none exists.

Ten practice questions

1. How many marks did the 2025 SGT written paper carry? (A) 60 (B) 80 (C) 100 (D) 120

2. Which post had a 200-question paper in 3 hours and no TET weightage? (A) SGT (B) School Assistant (Mathematics) (C) PET (D) TGT (Telugu)

3. A School Assistant scores 48 in the written test and has 135 of 150 in the TET. Using the 80 and 20 pattern with proportional scaling, what is the total? (A) 60 (B) 63 (C) 66 (D) 68

4. What was the minimum qualifying score for an OC candidate in the English language proficiency test? (A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 70

5. In the 2025 SGT paper, how many marks did Mathematics content carry? (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16

6. Which factor is used first to break a tie between two candidates with equal marks? (A) Date of birth (B) TET marks (C) Date of passing B.Ed (D) Gender

7. For the PGT post, which statement is correct? (A) TET weightage is 20 marks (B) There is no TET and the written paper is 100 marks (C) The paper has 160 questions (D) The English proficiency test is compulsory for language PGTs

8. How many MCQs did the 2025 School Assistant content section have? (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 80 (D) 100

9. About how many seconds per question does a 160-question, 150-minute paper allow on average? (A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 56 (D) 75

10. Why is normalisation applied? (A) To add marks for difficult papers (B) To compare scores fairly across different shifts (C) To remove the TET component (D) To increase the pass percentage

Answers and explanations

Q Answer Explanation
1 (B) The SGT paper had 160 MCQs for 80 marks.
2 (C) PET had 200 MCQs for 100 marks in 3 hours and no TET.
3 (C) The TET part is 135 divided by 150 times 20, which is 18, so the total is 48 plus 18, which is 66.
4 (C) Qualifying marks were 60 for OC, BC and EWS.
5 (B) Mathematics content carried 16 questions for 8 marks.
6 (A) The 2025 order starts with date of birth, the older candidate ranking higher.
7 (B) PGT had no TET and a 200-question, 100-mark paper.
8 (C) Content was 80 MCQs for 40 marks.
9 (C) 150 minutes times 60 divided by 160 is 56.25 seconds.
10 (B) Normalisation adjusts for different difficulty across shifts so that scores are comparable.

Frequently asked questions

Is the AP DSC 2026 exam pattern officially released? As on October 2026, the general teacher posts' 2026 pattern was not available on the official portals. The 2025 pattern in this guide is the latest official one. The portal does list a 2026 syllabus note for School Assistant (Special Education).

How many marks is the SGT paper? In 2025, 80 marks from 160 MCQs, with 20 marks added for the TET weightage.

Is there negative marking? The documents reviewed do not mention it. Check the 2026 bulletin.

Do TGT and PGT candidates sit two papers? For non-language posts in 2025, yes: a qualifying English proficiency test and then the main paper. Language posts had no English test.

Do the English test marks count for merit? No. They are qualifying only.

How is TET combined with the written test? In 2025, 80 marks for the written test and 20 marks for the TET weightage for most teacher posts. The conversion formula should be confirmed in the 2026 bulletin.

Is there a physical test for PET? The 2025 bulletin reviewed here states the written test for 100 marks. Check the 2026 notification for any additional component.

Which site gives the official pattern? cse.ap.gov.in and the AP TET and DSC portal at tet2dsc.apcfss.in.

Practise on Pareeksha.in

Start with the free mini mock to test your speed, then try full-length papers in the online test series. Pareeksha.in offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks. Mock papers are fixed, so you can compare your percentile with others who attempted the same paper. Daily topic practice is available in practice sets. These tools measure preparation and do not guarantee any result.

Sources and verification

Official documents opened for this guide:

  • Mega DSC 2025 Notification 01 (School Education) and Notification 02 (residential schools), dated 20 April 2025, on the AP TET and DSC portal (tet2dsc.apcfss.in).
  • Mega DSC 2025 Information Bulletins for School Education and for residential schools, on the same portal.
  • Mega DSC 2025 frequently asked questions and the press notes of August 2025, on the same portal.
  • DSC-2026 syllabus note for School Assistant (Special Education), on the same portal.
  • APTET June 2026 notification, information bulletin and schedule, on the same portal.
  • Commissioner of School Education home page (cse.ap.gov.in).

Not verified: the 2026 pattern for the general teacher posts, negative marking, the TET score conversion formula, and any physical test component for PET in 2026. These are stated as unverified above. Information as on October 2026.

Test yourself

Andhra Pradesh GK: 10 questions

The facts APPSC, AP Police and AP Grama Sachivalayam papers keep asking. Takes about 2 minutes.

1. Andhra State, India’s first state formed on a linguistic basis, came into being in which year?

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