The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission published the detailed version of its Group-I notification on 6 October 2026, three weeks after the brief notification of 15 September 2026. The brief notification told candidates which posts were coming. The detailed one tells them nearly everything else: the final vacancy count, age limits, fee, local-status rules, physical standards for the police posts, the date of the screening test and the way marks and ranks will be handled. Several numbers moved between the two documents, so any article written from the brief notification alone is now out of date in places.
This post reads the detailed notification, Notification No. 07/2026, end to end and turns it into a working checklist. It is deliberately different from our guide to syllabus, exam pattern and eligibility: that post is about the subjects. This one is about the document, the dates and the procedure, and about what to do in the roughly 110 days between now and the screening test.
As on 7 October 2026. Source: APPSC Notification No. 07/2026 (detailed), dated 6 October 2026, and Brief Notification No. 07/2026, dated 15 September 2026, both at psc.ap.gov.in. The Commission reserves the right to alter vacancies, and an addendum may add vacancies before the screening test. Read the live notification before you pay a fee.
What changed between the brief and the detailed notification
The first thing to notice is that the vacancy count rose from 163 to 166. Three posts gained one vacancy each, and the detailed notification marks which vacancies are carried forward from earlier recruitments. The age row, which the brief notification left blank, now exists. The screening test date, which the brief notification promised to announce later, is fixed.
| Item | Brief notification (15 Sep 2026) | Detailed notification (6 Oct 2026) |
|---|---|---|
| Total vacancies | 163 | 166 |
| Deputy Collector | 11 | 12 |
| Deputy Registrar (Cooperative) | 15 | 16 (1 carried forward) |
| Assistant Audit Officer | 14 | 15 |
| Age | Not stated | 18-44 for most posts; DSP posts differ |
| Fee | Not stated | Rs 250 processing fee plus Rs 120 examination fee |
| Screening test date | To be announced | 24 January 2027 |
| Vacancy breakup | Not stated | Annexure I: by zone, community and horizontal reservation |
Key dates
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Brief notification | 15 September 2026 |
| Web note asking candidates to update OTPR | Issued 29 September 2026, effective 30 September 2026 |
| Detailed notification published | 6 October 2026 |
| Online applications open | 6 October 2026 |
| Online applications close | 27 October 2026, 11:59 PM |
| Correction window | Seven days after the last date of application |
| Screening test (OMR) | 24 January 2027 |
| Mains | To be announced later |
From 7 October 2026 to the screening test on 24 January 2027 there are 109 days. That is a real, finite runway, and the later sections show one way to use it.
Posts, vacancies and pay scales
The recruitment covers 13 post codes and 166 vacancies. Pay scales are quoted exactly as printed in the notification, in rupees.
| Code | Post | Vacancies | Age on 1 July 2026 | Pay scale |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 01 | Deputy Collector (A.P. Civil Service, Executive Branch) | 12 | 18-44 | 61,960 - 1,51,370 |
| 02 | Assistant Commissioner of State Tax | 14 | 18-44 | 61,960 - 1,51,370 |
| 03 | DSP (Civil) Category-II, A.P. Police Service | 36 (3 carried forward) | 21-30 | 61,960 - 1,51,370 |
| 04 | DSP (Communications) | 3 | 18-30 | 61,960 - 1,51,370 |
| 05 | District Educational Officer | 14 | 18-44 | 61,960 - 1,51,370 |
| 06 | Regional Transport Officer | 3 | 18-44 | 57,100 - 1,47,760 |
| 07 | District Tribal Welfare Officer | 1 | 18-44 | 57,100 - 1,47,760 |
| 08 | Deputy Registrar, A.P. Cooperative Service | 16 (1 carried forward) | 18-44 | 57,100 - 1,47,760 |
| 09 | Municipal Commissioner Grade-II | 12 | 18-44 | 54,060 - 1,40,540 |
| 10 | Assistant Treasury Officer / Assistant Accounts Officer | 2 | 18-44 | 54,060 - 1,40,540 |
| 11 | District Employment Officer | 3 (1 carried forward) | 18-44 | 54,060 - 1,40,540 |
| 12 | Assistant Audit Officer | 15 | 18-44 | 54,060 - 1,40,540 |
| 13 | Divisional Development Officer (Panchayat Raj) | 35 | 18-44 | 65,360 - 1,54,980 |
| Total | 166 |
Two practical observations follow from this table. First, the largest single block is DSP (Civil) with 36 vacancies, followed by Divisional Development Officer with 35, but both are shaped by constraints: the first by physical standards and a narrow age band, the second by multi-zone local rules. Second, four posts carry only one to three vacancies each. For a single-vacancy post, how the reservation roster is applied matters as much as your rank, so read Annexure I before ranking a post as your first choice.
Vacancies by cadre and zone
Posts 01 to 03 and 05 to 13 are local-cadre posts. Post 04, DSP (Communications), is a state-cadre post, and the local-reservation rule does not apply to it. Posts 01-03, 05-11 and 13 are organised into two multi-zones, and post 12 is organised into six zones. The break-up below is derived by adding the open and local rows for each post in Annexure I of the notification.
| Code | Post | Multi-Zone I | Multi-Zone II | State | Zone-wise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 01 | Deputy Collector | 6 | 6 | ||
| 02 | Asst. Commissioner, State Tax | 9 | 5 | ||
| 03 | DSP (Civil) | 17 | 19 | ||
| 04 | DSP (Communications) | 3 | |||
| 05 | District Educational Officer | 7 | 7 | ||
| 06 | Regional Transport Officer | 2 | 1 | ||
| 07 | District Tribal Welfare Officer | 0 | 1 | ||
| 08 | Deputy Registrar | 9 | 7 | ||
| 09 | Municipal Commissioner Gr-II | 4 | 8 | ||
| 10 | Asst. Treasury / Accounts Officer | 1 | 1 | ||
| 11 | District Employment Officer | 0 | 3 | ||
| 12 | Assistant Audit Officer | Zone I: 2, II: 2, III: 0, IV: 2, V: 5, VI: 4 | |||
| 13 | Divisional Development Officer | 16 | 19 |
Multi-Zone I covers Zones I to III: Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Parvathipuram Manyam, Visakhapatnam, Anakapalli, Alluri Sitarama Raju, East Godavari, Kakinada, Dr B.R. Ambedkar Konaseema, West Godavari, Eluru, NTR and Krishna districts. Multi-Zone II covers Zones IV to VI: Guntur, Palnadu, Bapatla, Prakasam, Sri Potti Sriramulu Nellore, Tirupati, Chittoor, Annamayya, YSR Kadapa, Nandyal, Anantapuramu, Kurnool and Sri Sathya Sai districts.
The notification also lists vacancies by community (OC, EWS, BC-A to BC-E, SC Groups I to III, ST), by women under horizontal reservation, and for persons with benchmark disabilities. Since horizontal reservation cuts across vertical categories, the women and disability numbers sit inside the community rows rather than adding to them.
Eligibility: qualification and the crucial date
For every post except post code 04, a bachelor's degree from a recognised university or an equivalent qualification is enough. For DSP (Communications), the notification asks for a B.E. or B.Tech in Electronics and Communication Engineering, Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering or Radio Engineering. Degrees obtained through open or distance mode must have recognition from the competent body, and B.E. or B.Tech degrees through distance mode are eligible only if recognised or approved by the AICTE.
The detailed notification fixes its own date, 6 October 2026, as the crucial date for qualification and experience. A candidate whose degree result is declared after that date does not meet the qualification condition under this notification. This is a different rule from many other recruitments that count qualification on the last date of application, so do not assume.
Every candidate must also meet the general conditions of eligibility: sound health, active habits and freedom from any bodily defect that makes him or her unfit for the service, character and antecedents suitable for the service, the prescribed qualifications, and Indian citizenship, subject to the usual proviso about previous sanction of the government.
Age limit and relaxations
The age clause states a minimum of 18 or 21 and a maximum of 30 or 44 years as on 1 July 2026, as per Rule 12 of the A.P. State and Subordinate Service Rules, 1996, read with G.O.Ms.No. 187 and G.O.Ms.No. 188 (General Administration (Ser.A) Department, both dated 14 September 2026). Reading the post table, the 21-30 band applies to DSP (Civil), the 18-30 band to DSP (Communications), and the 18-44 band to every other post.
The relaxations apply on top of the post's own maximum:
| Category | Relaxation |
|---|---|
| SC, ST, BC and EWS | 5 years |
| Persons with benchmark disabilities | 10 years |
| Ex-servicemen | Deduct length of service plus 3 years |
| NCC instructors | Deduct length of NCC service plus 3 years |
| Regular A.P. State Government employees | Deduct regular service, up to 5 years (corporation and municipal employees are not eligible) |
| Retrenched temporary employees of the Census Department with at least 6 months of service | 3 years |
Ex-servicemen and NCC instructors, after the deductions, may not exceed the maximum age prescribed for the post. The relaxation for ex-servicemen applies to those released from the armed forces other than by dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency.
Physical standards for the police posts
Post codes 03 and 04 carry physical requirements, drawn from G.O.Ms.No. 137, Home (Police-E) Department, dated 1 June 1998 and G.O.Ms.No. 319, Home (Police-E) Department, dated 16 October 1995.
| Standard | Requirement |
|---|---|
| Height (men) | Not less than 167.6 cm |
| Chest (men) | Not less than 86.3 cm on full inspiration, with expansion of at least 5 cm |
| Height (ST men) | Not less than 164 cm |
| Chest (ST men) | Not less than 83.8 cm, with expansion of at least 5 cm |
| Women | Height not less than 152.5 cm and weight not less than 45.5 kg |
| Vision (DSP Civil) | Vision standards without contact lenses, set out in three standards in the notification |
| Vision (DSP Communications) | Distant and near vision standards without glasses; colour blindness, squint and certain other conditions listed as disqualifications |
A medical board assesses fitness, and the notification states that the vision tests are done without contact lenses. Read the vision tables in the notification with your own medical reports before you apply for these posts, because the text sets very specific distance and near vision conditions. Disability reservation is not available for post codes 03 and 04.
Reservation and local status
Vertical reservation applies for Scheduled Tribes, Scheduled Castes, Backward Classes and Economically Weaker Sections. Horizontal reservation applies for women (33 and one-third per cent), persons with benchmark disabilities and meritorious sports persons (3 per cent), as per Rules 22, 22A and 22B of the State and Subordinate Service Rules and the government orders listed in the notification. Disability reservation is restricted for some posts: for the Assistant Commissioner of State Tax to hearing-handicapped and orthopaedically handicapped, for the Regional Transport Officer to hearing-handicapped, and for the Assistant Treasury or Accounts Officer to orthopaedically handicapped.
Local reservation follows Article 371-D and the Andhra Pradesh Public Employment (Organisation of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order, 2025, as applied by G.O.Ms.No. 45 (General Administration (SPF and MC) Department, 20 April 2026). The key rule is the 95:5 split. The provisional selection list for each multi-zone or zone is divided into two parts. The first, 5 per cent of the posts, comes from a combined merit list of local and non-local candidates. The second, 95 per cent of the posts, comes from local candidates alone. The rule does not apply to DSP (Communications), which is a state-level post.
A candidate is local in an area where he or she studied for at least four consecutive academic years up to and including the year of the Class VII examination. If the candidate did not study in an institution during those four years, residence in the area counts. If neither test gives an answer, the area where the candidate studied the longest across the seven years up to and including Class VII is taken. Study certificates are required if the candidate studied in an institution up to Class VII, and a residence certificate is accepted only when the candidate has not studied in an educational institution during that period, for example a candidate who obtained a degree through an open university without studying up to Class VII. Candidates who migrated from Telangana to Andhra Pradesh between 2 June 2014 and 1 June 2024 must obtain a local-status certificate under the orders cited in the notification.
Certificate rules for categories deserve attention. Backward Class candidates must hold a non-creamy-layer certificate issued by the Tahsildar on or after 1 April 2026 and not later than the closing date of applications. EWS candidates must hold an EWS certificate based on the income for the financial year 2025-26, issued in digital format by an authority of Tahsildar rank on or after 1 April 2026, again not later than the closing date. EWS means a gross annual family income below Rs 8 lakh and not being covered by the SC, ST or BC schemes. BC, SC, ST and EWS candidates who belong to other states are not entitled to reservation, as paragraph 4.12 of the notification states.
Fee and exemptions
The notification asks for Rs 250 as application processing fee and Rs 120 as examination fee. Exemption from the examination fee is available to SC, ST, BC, persons with benchmark disabilities and ex-servicemen, to families holding a household supply white card issued by the Civil Supplies Department (residents of Andhra Pradesh), and to unemployed youth as defined in the order cited in the notification, who must submit a declaration at the appropriate time. Candidates of the exempt categories who belong to other states are not entitled to the exemption, other than persons with benchmark disabilities and ex-servicemen. Candidates of other states pay the Rs 120 examination fee together with the Rs 250 processing fee.
Payment is online by net banking, credit card or debit card. The fee is not refunded or adjusted, and an application without the required fee is rejected. The Commission does not accept postal orders or demand drafts. A correction after submission costs Rs 100 per correction, and the Rs 100 per objection to a question or answer key is refunded only if the objection is sustained.
How to apply: the exact sequence
- Update the OTPR. The Commission's web note of 29 September 2026 asks every candidate to update OTPR particulars from 30 September 2026 before applying for any notification, because the OTPR now records district, zone and multi-zone status based on study or residence. New candidates register first. The OTPR is never an application.
- Log in with your OTPR ID and click Online Application Submission, then Fill Application against Notification 07/2026.
- Check the data pulled from the OTPR. Application-specific details such as local or non-local status and white card details are used to compute the fee. If any detail is wrong, use the modify-OTPR link, save it and begin again.
- Fill post preferences, qualifications and examination centre. The notification says that medium, post preferences and zone preferences for the Mains are collected online later, before the Mains.
- Click Save and Submit, not just Save. Save keeps a partial draft. Only Save and Submit generates the payment link, and the application is complete only after a successful payment.
- Download the application PDF and keep the payment reference.
- Use the correction window if needed. Corrections open after the last date and stay open for seven days. Name, fee and age-relaxation fields cannot be changed.
The Commission recommends applying well before the last date. Applications sent in any other mode will not be entertained.
Selection process
Selection has three stages and the sequence is fixed.
Stage 1: Screening test. An objective test of two papers, held in offline OMR mode. The question paper is set in English and translated into Telugu, and the English version is authentic for valuation. The number of candidates admitted to the Mains is 50 times the number of vacancies, irrespective of community. The Commission can pick candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks it fixes, and can apply relaxed standards for SC, ST, BC and disabled candidates if too few would qualify on the general standard.
Stage 2: Mains. A descriptive examination of seven papers, two of them qualifying. For the two language papers, the minimum qualifying marks in each individual paper are 40 per cent for OC, sports persons and EWS, 35 per cent for BC and 30 per cent for SC, ST and persons with benchmark disabilities. Other papers count on aggregate. The medium can be English, Telugu or Urdu for all papers except the two language papers, and the medium chosen once applies to all five papers. Mixed-language answers can make the candidature invalid. The Mains is held at four centres: Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupati and Anantapuramu. Evaluation may be digital or conventional.
Stage 3: Interview. Eligible candidates are called in the ratio of 1:2 against vacancies, with the special representation rules of the service rules. Interview marks are 75. Final selection is on merit in the Mains plus interview, with a merit total of 825.
Minimum qualifying aggregate: 40 per cent for OC, sports persons and EWS, 35 per cent for BC, and 30 per cent for SC, ST and persons with benchmark disabilities. These are floors. They do not guarantee selection. Ties in Mains total marks are broken by age, with the older candidate placed higher, and then by the earlier date of educational qualification.
There is no waiting list. The recruitment is made only against the notified vacancies. Candidates can state post and zone preferences before the Mains and again at certificate verification, but the Commission can assign any notified post for which the candidate is eligible. Preferences are indicative and do not create a right to a particular post or zone.
The examination scheme
Screening test, as per G.O.Ms.No. 158 (General Administration (Ser.A) Department, 26 December 2018):
| Paper | Content | Questions | Time | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper I: General Studies | A. History and Culture; B. Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations; C. Indian and Andhra Pradesh Economy and Planning; D. Geography (30 marks each) | 120 | 120 minutes | 120 |
| Paper II: General Aptitude | A. General Mental Ability, Administrative and Psychological Abilities (60); B(i). Science and Technology (30); B(ii). Current events of regional, national and international importance (30) | 120 | 120 minutes | 120 |
Each wrong answer carries a penalty of one-third of the marks prescribed for the question, as per G.O.Ms.No. 235 (Finance, 6 December 2016).
Mains:
| Paper | Nature | Time | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
| Telugu (SSC standard) | Qualifying | 180 minutes | 150 |
| English (SSC standard) | Qualifying | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Paper I: General Essay | Merit | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Paper II: History, Culture and Geography of India and Andhra Pradesh | Merit | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Paper III: Polity, Constitution, Governance, Law and Ethics | Merit | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Paper IV: Economy and Development of India and Andhra Pradesh | Merit | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Paper V: Science, Technology and Environmental Issues | Merit | 180 minutes | 150 |
| Interview | Merit | 75 | |
| Merit total | 825 |
The two language papers are worth understanding closely because they are qualifying papers that can still end a candidacy. The English paper sets an essay of 200 to 250 words (20 marks), a formal letter (10), a press release or appeal (10), a report (15), writing on visual information (15), a formal speech (15), a precis of a 300-word passage in about 100 words (15), reading comprehension (15), multiple-choice grammar and usage (20), and translation from the regional language into English (15). The Telugu paper includes an essay (20), elaboration of verses from the Vemana and Sumathi satakams (20), a precis (10), comprehension (10), a formal speech (10), a press note (10), a letter (10), an application (10), a report (10), translations in both directions (10 each), word meanings (10) and synonyms and antonyms (10).
The General Essay paper asks for three essays of about 800 words each, one from each of three sections: current affairs; socio-political, socio-economic and socio-environmental issues; and cultural and historical aspects, civic awareness and reflective topics. Credit goes to format, grammatical correctness and originality of thought and expression.
Syllabus map in brief
The notification annexes the full syllabus at degree standard. The map below condenses the headings, in our own wording, so you can see how the 120 marks of each screening paper split. Read the annexure for the exact scope.
| Part | Marks | What the syllabus covers |
|---|---|---|
| Paper I A: History and Culture | 30 | Indus Valley to Gupta; South Indian dynasties including Satavahanas, Kakatiyas and Reddis; Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagara, Mughals; European companies; 1857; reform movements; freedom struggle; reorganisation of states |
| Paper I B: Constitution, Polity, Social Justice, International Relations | 30 | Constitution and basic structure; Union-State functions; constitutional authorities; Panchayati Raj; rights issues; foreign policy and institutions |
| Paper I C: Economy and Planning | 30 | Indian economy, NITI Aayog, national income, agriculture, industry, RBI, GST, finance commissions, budget; AP economy after 2014 and issues under the Reorganisation Act, 2014 |
| Paper I D: Geography | 30 | General, physical, social and economic geography of the world, India and the state |
| Paper II A: Mental ability and aptitude | 60 | Reasoning, series, coding, relations, arithmetic, geometry, data interpretation and sufficiency, probability, emotional and social intelligence, decision making |
| Paper II B(i): Science and Technology | 30 | Policy and institutions, ICT, space and defence, energy, environment and biotechnology |
| Paper II B(ii): Current events | 30 | Regional, national and international |
The Mains syllabus leans heavily on Andhra Pradesh. Paper II includes the ancient, medieval and modern history of Andhra, the Andhra movement, the formation of the state in 1953 and 1956, the bifurcation of 2014 and its legal, financial and administrative implications. Paper IV includes resource mobilisation, budgeting, industrial policy and infrastructure of Andhra Pradesh. Paper V includes a long environmental and public-health section.
Examination centres
The screening test is held at district centres, and the notification lists 26: Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Parvathipuram Manyam, Alluri Sitarama Raju, Visakhapatnam, Anakapalli, Kakinada, Dr B.R. Ambedkar Konaseema, East Godavari, West Godavari, Eluru, Krishna, NTR, Guntur, Palnadu, Bapatla, Prakasam, S.P.S.R. Nellore, Chittoor, Tirupati, Annamayya, Y.S.R. Kadapa, Sri Sathya Sai, Anantapuramu, Nandyal and Kurnool. Candidates give three preferences, and the Commission may allot any centre. For the Mains, a candidate chooses one of four centres, and the choice is final unless the Commission changes it for administrative reasons.
Answer key and objections
After the screening test the Commission publishes an initial key. Objections must be filed within three days of publication, on the prescribed proforma, at Rs 100 per objection. The objections are examined by three subject experts, and the key is then finalised, after which no more objections are taken. If a question is deleted, marks are scaled proportionately for that part of the paper to the maximum marks, rounded to two decimal places. An OMR sheet is invalid if the booklet series is not bubbled or is bubbled wrongly, if the sheet is tampered with using whitener, eraser or blade, or if the barcode is tampered with, and the Commission does not reconsider such cases.
A 109-day plan from today to 24 January 2027
The Commission's schedule gives a fixed date, which makes planning possible. The plan below is one structure, not a promise of outcome. Adjust it to your strengths.
| Phase | Days | Focus |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Setup | 1-7 (7-13 October) | Update OTPR, apply, print the syllabus annexure, rate each part as strong, medium or weak, and take one full diagnostic paper of each type |
| 2. Foundation | 8-45 | First complete pass of history, polity, economy and geography at degree level with Andhra Pradesh sections written separately; 40 minutes of reasoning daily; one current-affairs note per day |
| 3. Depth | 46-80 | Second pass of weak areas, science and technology, environment and the Reorganisation Act, 2014; topic tests; start writing: one essay a week, timed, because the Mains follows |
| 4. Papers | 81-100 | Two full-length papers a week under exam timing, 120 questions in 120 minutes, with a written error log |
| 5. Revision | 101-109 | Light revision of your own notes only, no new books, sleep and exam-centre logistics |
Because the screening test applies a one-third penalty, practise a deliberate attempt strategy in your mock tests. With 120 marks per paper, a candidate who answers 90 questions with 70 correct scores 70 minus 20 divided by 3, about 63.3. The same candidate who skips the 20 doubtful questions and answers 70 with 60 correct scores 60 minus 10 divided by 3, about 56.7. The first approach scores more here, which shows the penalty is not an argument for skipping every uncertain question; it is an argument for knowing your real accuracy on doubtful questions by testing it. Record the accuracy of your "50-50" guesses over several papers and decide accordingly.
Paper II deserves its own treatment. Sixty of its 120 marks sit in mental ability, administrative and psychological abilities, and many candidates give it a fraction of the time they give to history. Because these questions can be practised and improved quickly, they are often the most efficient marks to add.
Documents to keep ready
- Degree certificate or provisional certificate dated on or before 6 October 2026, and marks memos.
- Study certificates from Class I to VII, or a residence certificate where the notification allows it, for local status.
- Community certificate issued by an authority not below Tahsildar rank.
- Non-creamy-layer certificate for BC candidates, and EWS certificate in digital format, both issued on or after 1 April 2026.
- Disability certificate for benchmark-disability claims, with category as per the notification.
- Service certificate for ex-servicemen, NCC instructors and state-government employees claiming relaxation.
- Household supply white card, if claiming the fee exemption.
- Local-status certificate for candidates who migrated from Telangana in the notified period.
- Photograph and signature scans as the portal requires.
Rules that can cost a candidacy
The notification warns that a candidate who gives incorrect information, makes a false declaration or suppresses information is liable to be debarred for up to five years from the Commission's examinations and to have the candidature rejected. Impersonation can lead to permanent debarment from examinations held by service commissions in the country. Mobile phones, calculators, smart watches, storage devices and any electronic gadget capable of communication are prohibited at the examination, even in switched-off mode. Canvassing for support, directly or through relatives or friends, disqualifies a candidate. Serving government employees must inform their head of office in writing that they have applied.
What is still not known
| Question | Status as on 7 October 2026 |
|---|---|
| Mains and interview dates | Not announced |
| Number of applicants | Not published |
| Cut-off marks for the screening test | Fixed by the Commission after the test |
| Whether more vacancies will be added | Possible before the screening test through an addendum |
| Pay beyond the scale | Allowances vary by posting; the notification gives scales only |
Key facts for exams
- Notification No. 07/2026: brief on 15 September 2026, detailed on 6 October 2026; 166 vacancies in 13 post codes.
- Applications: 6 to 27 October 2026, up to 11:59 PM; screening test on 24 January 2027 in OMR mode.
- Fee: Rs 250 application processing fee plus Rs 120 examination fee; exemptions listed in the notification.
- Age on 1 July 2026: 18-44 for most posts; 21-30 for DSP (Civil); 18-30 for DSP (Communications).
- Screening: two papers of 120 questions, 120 minutes, 120 marks; one-third negative marking.
- Mains: two qualifying language papers and five merit papers of 150 marks; interview 75; merit total 825.
- Mains shortlist: 50 times vacancies; interview call: 1:2.
- Local reservation: 95 per cent local, 5 per cent combined merit, except for DSP (Communications).
- Mains centres: Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupati and Anantapuramu.
10 practice questions
1. How many vacancies are listed in the detailed Group 1 notification 07/2026? a) 163 b) 166 c) 175 d) 210
2. The screening test of this cycle is scheduled for: a) 15 December 2026 b) 24 January 2027 c) 28 February 2027 d) 13 March 2027
3. How many times the number of vacancies are admitted to the Mains? a) 20 times b) 30 times c) 50 times d) 100 times
4. In the Mains, the Telugu and English papers are: a) merit papers of 100 marks b) qualifying papers of 150 marks c) optional papers d) oral tests
5. The local-reservation rule in Group 1 (2026) gives local candidates what share of each multi-zone or zonal list? a) 50 per cent b) 75 per cent c) 85 per cent d) 95 per cent
6. Which post is exempt from the local-reservation rule because it is a state-level post? a) Deputy Collector b) DSP (Communications) c) Assistant Audit Officer d) Divisional Development Officer
7. A candidate who scores 70 correct and 20 wrong out of 90 attempted questions in a 120-mark paper with one-third negative marking scores about: a) 50.0 b) 56.7 c) 63.3 d) 70.0
8. Correction in an application can be made: a) at any time before the interview b) for seven days after the last date of application, at Rs 100 per correction c) only by post d) never
9. Which centre is NOT one of the four Mains centres? a) Visakhapatnam b) Vijayawada c) Guntur d) Anantapuramu
10. The crucial date for qualification in this notification is: a) 15 September 2026 b) 6 October 2026 c) 27 October 2026 d) 24 January 2027
Answers
- b. The detailed notification totals 166.
- b. Paragraph 1.7 fixes 24 January 2027.
- c. Paragraph 15.1 admits 50 times the vacancies.
- b. Both are qualifying, 150 marks each, not counted in merit.
- d. The 95:5 split is stated in paragraphs 6 and 13.5.
- b. Post code 04 is state cadre.
- c. 70 minus 20/3 is about 63.3.
- b. Step V allows corrections for seven days from the last date, at Rs 100 each.
- c. The four centres are Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupati and Anantapuramu.
- b. The notification treats the date of the detailed notification as the crucial date.
Frequently asked questions
How many posts are there in APPSC Group 1 2026? The detailed notification of 6 October 2026 lists 166 vacancies in 13 post codes. The brief notification had listed 163.
What is the last date to apply? 27 October 2026, up to 11:59 PM, through psc.ap.gov.in. Applications opened on 6 October 2026.
What is the age limit? 18 to 44 years on 1 July 2026 for most posts, 21 to 30 for DSP (Civil) and 18 to 30 for DSP (Communications), with relaxations such as five years for SC, ST, BC and EWS candidates.
What is the application fee? Rs 250 as application processing fee and Rs 120 as examination fee, with exemptions for several categories listed in the notification.
When is the screening test? 24 January 2027, in offline OMR mode. Mains dates will be announced later.
Is there an interview? Yes, 75 marks, after the Mains, at the ratio of 1:2 against vacancies.
Do I need to update my OTPR? Yes. The Commission asked all candidates to update OTPR particulars from 30 September 2026 before applying for any notification.
Which degree is required? Any bachelor's degree for all posts except DSP (Communications), which needs a B.E. or B.Tech in Electronics and Communication, Electronics and Telecommunication or Radio Engineering.
Related reading
- APPSC Group 1 2026 syllabus, exam pattern and eligibility
- APPSC Group 1, 2, 3 and 4 compared
- Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026: complete guide
- AP Reorganisation Act 2014 explained
- AP formation history: Andhra movement to 1956 and 2014
- Telugu version of this post
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Sources and verification
Opened and read in full for this post:
- APPSC Notification No. 07/2026, detailed notification dated 6 October 2026 (Group-I Services, General/Limited Recruitment), including Annexure I (break-up of vacancies) and Annexure II (scheme and syllabus), psc.ap.gov.in.
- APPSC Brief Notification No. 07/2026 dated 15 September 2026, with scheme and syllabus annexure, psc.ap.gov.in.
- APPSC Web Note dated 29 September 2026 on modification of OTPR in line with the Presidential Order, 2025, psc.ap.gov.in.
- APPSC portal notification list (portal-psc.ap.gov.in) showing the publication dates of the detailed notification and the application link.
- G.O.Ms.No. 187 and G.O.Ms.No. 188, General Administration (Ser.A) Department, 14 September 2026 (read from copies of the orders; originals are listed on goir.ap.gov.in).
Not verified: the number of applicants, any screening cut-off, the Mains and interview dates (not yet announced), and the allowances that will apply on top of the printed pay scales. The zone-wise vacancy table was computed by adding the open and local rows of Annexure I and should be checked against the annexure before you rely on a single-vacancy post.
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