The constable post is the largest doorway into the Andhra Pradesh Police. It asks for an Intermediate pass rather than a degree, it recruits men and women, and it combines a written test with measured, timed physical tests. That mix is what makes it demanding. A candidate can be strong on paper and still be filtered out at the 1600 metre run, or fit on the track and still fall short in the written test. This guide walks through the whole process as laid down in the official notification of the State Level Police Recruitment Board (SLPRB), so that you can plan every stage instead of discovering the rules late.
Everything numerical below is taken from SLPRB notification Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026 dated 16 September 2026, which covers Stipendiary Cadet Trainee (SCT) Police Constables (Civil and AR), Firemen and Warders. These numbers are as on October 2026. The Board states that vacancies are provisional and can change without notice, and that it may issue corrigenda, so treat the live notification on slprb.ap.gov.in as the final word. If you are also thinking about the Sub-Inspector route, read the AP Police SI guide and the Constable vs SI comparison. For pay, training and career details, see AP Police Constable salary and job profile. The broader landscape of state recruitment is covered in the Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026 guide.
1. The notification at a glance
The Board issued several notifications on 16 September 2026. The one that matters for constables is the first, which bundles five posts. Application dates and the date of the preliminary written test were not fixed in the notification. It says they will be announced separately through a press release on the official website, so no date should be assumed.
| Item | What the notification says |
|---|---|
| Notification number and date | Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026, 16 September 2026 |
| Mode of application | Online only, through slprb.ap.gov.in |
| SCT PC (Civil), post code 21 | 542 vacancies, men and women |
| SCT PC (AR), post code 22 | 285 vacancies, men and women |
| Firemen, post code 42 | 158 vacancies, men only |
| Warder (Men), post code 53 | 150 vacancies |
| Warder (Women), post code 54 | 21 vacancies |
| Total of the five posts | 1,156 provisional vacancies |
| Cut-off date for age and education | 1 July 2026 |
| Pay scale | Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910 (Revised Pay Scale 2022) |
A subtle point appears in the district-wise table. Alongside the direct recruitment (DR) vacancies it lists a separate column of limited recruitment (LR), which are backlog vacancies: 71 for post code 21, 21 for post code 22 and 7 for post code 42. These are filled only by local candidates of the respective revenue district, and the headline totals above are the direct recruitment figures. If you are applying to a district with backlog vacancies, read that table closely.
2. What "SCT Police Constable" means
SCT stands for Stipendiary Cadet Trainee. Selected candidates first join as cadet trainees at a training institution and receive a stipend fixed by the Government from time to time. After successful completion of training they are appointed in the regular time scale of pay. The recruitment rules cited in the notification are the Andhra Pradesh Police (Stipendiary Cadet Trainee) Rules, issued under G.O.Ms.No.315, Home (Pol.C) Department, dated 13 October 1999, as amended.
Two constable streams are in this notification, and they differ in ways that matter.
- Civil (post code 21). Station-based policing: patrolling, bandobast, court and summons duty, assisting investigation. Vacancies are distributed district-wise.
- Armed Reserve, AR (post code 22). Battalion and reserve-force duties such as escorts, guards and deployment. The physical test here is scored out of 100 marks that count towards the final merit, which is not the case for Civil.
The other three posts, Firemen and the two Warder posts, share the same preliminary test and the same pay scale, but they belong to different departments and have an age limit up to 32 years. You fill one application form even if you want several of these posts, and you rank your preferences for post and unit in the form. The selection list is prepared from those preferences, so a post or unit you leave blank is not considered for you.
3. Eligibility: education, age and medical standards
Educational qualification
For post codes 21, 22 and 42, you must have passed Intermediate or an equivalent examination recognised by the State Government as on 1 July 2026. Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates have a concession: they must have passed SSC or equivalent, and must have studied Intermediate and appeared for both the first-year and second-year Intermediate examinations. Those who hold a higher qualification are also considered along with those who hold only the prescribed one. For Warders (post codes 53 and 54), Intermediate or equivalent is required. The notification places the burden of proving recognition of a certificate on the candidate.
Age limit
Age is counted on 1 July 2026, not on the date you apply or the date of the exam. For post codes 21 and 22, a candidate must have attained 18 years and must not have attained 24 years on that date. In terms of birth dates, that means born between 2 July 2002 and 1 July 2008, both days included.
| Category | Upper age limit effect | Born on or after |
|---|---|---|
| General candidates (post codes 21, 22) | Must not have attained 24 | 2 July 2002 |
| EWS, BC (Non-Creamy Layer), SC, ST | Up to 5 years' relaxation | 2 July 1997 (by arithmetic) |
| Home Guards meeting the service condition | Upper limit 32 | 2 July 1994 |
| Firemen and Warders (codes 42, 53, 54) | Upper limit 32 | 2 July 1994 |
The "born on or after" figure for the relaxed categories is simple arithmetic from the five-year rule: 24 plus 5 is 29, so the candidate must not have attained 29 on 1 July 2026. Confirm it against the notification before relying on it. Other relaxations listed include regular service in the State Government up to five years (employees of corporations, local bodies and similar bodies are not covered), service in the Army, Navy or Air Force plus three years, whole-time NCC instructor service plus three years, and certain retrenched temporary employees of the State Census Department. A widow, divorced or judicially separated woman who has not remarried gets a higher ceiling: below 42 for SC and ST, below 37 for others, with documents required. The BC relaxation and BC-E reservation are stated to be subject to pending court litigation.
An age example makes the rule concrete. A candidate born on 15 March 2003 is 23 years old on 1 July 2026 and is within the general limit. A candidate born on 1 July 2002 has already turned 24 on 1 July 2026, so is over the general limit, because the earliest permitted birth date is 2 July 2002. Two days can decide eligibility, which is why the notification warns that the online form does not validate age. Your date of birth must match the SSC or equivalent certificate. Horoscopes, affidavits and municipal birth extracts are not accepted.
Medical standards
The notification prescribes distant vision of 6/6 in each eye, near vision as printed (0/5 Snellen) and a full field of vision in each eye. Colour blindness, squint or any morbid condition of the eyes or lids is a disqualification. Conditions listed as disqualifying include knock-knees, pigeon chest, flat feet, varicose veins, hammer toes, fractured limbs, decayed teeth, stammering, hard of hearing and abnormal psychological behaviour. Candidates are advised to be examined by a Civil Surgeon before applying. Treat that advice seriously, because a medical disqualification after months of preparation is the costliest kind of rejection.
4. Reservations and local status
Reservation is layered, and understanding the layers prevents mistakes in the form.
- Women. One third (33 1/3 per cent) of vacancies in each communal category, including EWS, are reserved for women in post code 21, and 20 per cent in post code 22. It is a horizontal reservation, adjusted within the category the woman belongs to. If suitable women are not available the posts are filled by men of that category and are not carried forward.
- Communal categories. EWS, BC-A, BC-B, BC-C, BC-D, BC-E, SC (Groups I, II and III under the sub-classification) and ST under Rule 22 of the AP State and Subordinate Service Rules, 1996. SC candidates must use the latest community certificate based on the 2025 sub-classification ordinance.
- Non-Creamy Layer and EWS certificates. An NCL certificate must be issued on or after 1 April 2026. A BC candidate who cannot produce a valid one at the PMT/PET centre is treated as Open Category and cannot later switch. The EWS certificate, for family income below Rs 8 lakh, must also be issued on or after 1 April 2026 by the Tahsildar.
- Scheduled Areas. Seventy-five per cent of Civil constable (men) vacancies in the scheduled areas go to Scheduled Tribe candidates domiciled in the listed agency districts.
- Local candidates. After the first 5 per cent of posts are filled on open merit among locals and non-locals, the remaining 95 per cent are filled by local candidates only, as per G.O.Ms.No.172 cited in the notification. To claim local status you submit study certificates for classes I to VII, or a residence certificate from the Tahsildar for any period you did not study in a recognised school. Candidates who migrated from Telangana within ten years of 2 June 2014 are treated as local where the cited orders apply. Non-local candidates are treated as Open Category.
Special category quotas, adjusted horizontally within communal categories, for post codes 21 and 22 are: Home Guards 15 per cent, Children of Police Personnel 4 per cent, Meritorious Sportspersons 3 per cent, NCC 3 per cent, Ex-Servicemen 2 per cent, and Children of deceased or incapacitated police personnel 2 per cent. Unfilled special category vacancies are filled from the respective communal category. These candidates must still meet the communal qualifying marks and take every physical event.
5. Application process and fee
Applications are online only. Payment of the fee comes first, using your name, date of birth, mobile number, community and SSC hall ticket number. After payment you must press submit on the Stage I application form. A paid fee without a submitted form leads to rejection, and the fee is not refunded. Only candidates who qualify in the preliminary written test return to upload the Stage II application with original certificates before the PMT and PET.
| Candidate | Fee for post codes 21, 22, 42, 53, 54 |
|---|---|
| OC (including EWS) and BC, local | Rs 300 |
| SC and ST, local | Rs 150 |
| Non-local candidates | Rs 300 (treated as OC) |
At the Stage I form you upload a passport photograph, signature, SSC certificate, community certificate for BC, SC and ST candidates, and EWS or NCL certificates where relevant. Submission is deemed to be your acceptance of every condition in the notification, and under-age or over-age applications are rejected without refund.
6. The four-stage selection process
The selection scheme for post codes 21, 22, 42, 53 and 54 has four steps: a preliminary written test, the Physical Measurements Test (PMT), the Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and a final written examination. Each stage is a gate, and the merit list is created from the last stage (plus PET marks in the AR stream).
Stage 1: Preliminary written test
One paper of three hours with 200 objective questions for 200 marks. The paper is set in English, Telugu and Urdu; the English-language questions appear in English even in the Telugu and Urdu versions. Answers go on an OMR sheet with a blue or black ball point pen. The minimum to qualify is 40 per cent for OC candidates including those claiming EWS, 35 per cent for BC and 30 per cent for SC and ST. Special category candidates need the minimum of their communal category. Marks in this test have no bearing on final selection. Its only job is to let you through to the physical tests.
Stage 2: Physical Measurements Test
Candidates who qualify are called for the PMT, where you must also carry original certificates, since documents are verified at this point and no further submission is accepted later. The measurements are recorded by a digital system, and height is measured standing upright.
| Standard | Men | Women |
|---|---|---|
| Height | At least 167.6 cm | At least 152.5 cm |
| Chest | At least 86.3 cm on full inspiration, with at least 5 cm expansion | Not applicable |
| Weight | Not applicable | At least 40 kg |
| Aboriginal ST of the listed agency areas, height | At least 160 cm | At least 150 cm |
| Aboriginal ST of the listed agency areas, chest or weight | Chest 80 cm, expansion 3 cm | At least 38 kg |
The relaxed standard applies to Aboriginal Scheduled Tribe candidates of the agency areas of Vizianagaram, Anakapalli, Polavaram, Alluri Sitharama Raju, Eluru and Parvathipuram Manyam, with a residence certificate.
Stage 3: Physical Efficiency Test
For the Civil stream (post code 21), men and women must qualify in the 1600 metre run and in any one of the 100 metre run or the long jump. The events are qualifying only. They are timed electronically, spike shoes are not permitted, and once an event has been conducted its result is final, with no re-test. Participation in every prescribed event is compulsory, including for special category candidates.
| Event | General | Ex-Servicemen | Women |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1600 m run | 8 min | 9 min 30 sec | 10 min 30 sec |
| 100 m run | 15 sec | 16.5 sec | 18 sec |
| Long jump | 3.80 m | 3.65 m | 2.75 m |
For the AR stream (post code 22), all three events are compulsory and carry 100 marks: 40 for the 1600 metre run, 30 for the 100 metre run and 30 for the long jump. Marks are given from a gradation table. For men, a 1600 metre time of 4 minutes or less earns the full 40 marks, while the qualifying time of 8 minutes earns 15 marks, with the intermediate bands in between. For the 100 metre run, 10.5 seconds or less earns 30 and the qualifying 15 seconds earns 10. In the long jump, 5.61 metres or more earns 30 and the qualifying 3.80 metres earns 10. The women's table runs on easier times, with 6 minutes 30 seconds for full marks in the 1600 metre run. The AR final merit combines 100 marks from the final written exam and 100 from the PET.
Stage 4: Final written examination
Those who qualify in the PET take the final written test: one paper of three hours with 200 questions. For Civil constables, the 200 questions carry 200 marks and the merit list is built on this score. For the AR stream the paper is graded for 100 marks and added to the 100 PET marks, making 200. The qualifying percentages are again 40, 35 and 30. If two candidates in a category tie, the older candidate gets preference. There is no waiting list: vacancies that arise from cancellation, non-joining or medical unfitness lapse.
7. Syllabus: what the paper actually tests
Annexure II of the notification lists the syllabus for both the preliminary and the final written test at Intermediate standard, objective type, 200 questions. The subjects are:
- English
- Arithmetic (SSC standard)
- Test of reasoning and mental ability
- General science
- History of India, Indian culture and the Indian National Movement
- Indian geography, polity and economy
- Current events of national and international importance
Three observations help in planning. First, there is no separate Andhra Pradesh section in the listed syllabus. State-specific facts can still appear under history, geography, polity and current events, but the paper is framed as a general paper, so do not spend half your time on state trivia. Second, the Board does not prescribe any textbook, and any dispute over a question is settled by a subject experts committee. Third, for each question the marking clause speaks only of full marks for a single correct bubble and zero for an unattempted question. The notification does not describe a deduction for wrong answers, but check the instructions printed on the hall ticket before you decide how aggressively to guess.
How to treat each subject
Arithmetic is the most reliable scoring area because the topics are finite: percentages, ratio and proportion, averages, profit and loss, time and work, time and distance, simple and compound interest, number system and mensuration. Speed matters more than depth. A short worked example shows the idea. A shopkeeper marks an item at Rs 800 and gives a discount of 15 per cent, then sells it. The selling price is 800 minus 120, which is Rs 680. If the cost was Rs 500, the profit is Rs 180 on a cost of 500, which is 36 per cent. Practise reaching that answer in under a minute through the fraction route (15 per cent is 3/20 of 800, which is 120) rather than long division.
Reasoning rewards pattern recognition: series, coding and decoding, direction sense, blood relations, syllogism, ranking, analogy and simple non-verbal figures. A typical direction question: a person walks 6 km north, turns right and walks 8 km, then turns right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the start? He has moved 8 km east in net terms and returned to the original north-south level, so the distance is 8 km. Sketching a small diagram removes most errors.
General science at this level is school science: motion and force, light, heat, electricity, acids and bases, metals and non-metals, human body systems, nutrition, common diseases, plant and animal basics, and everyday applications. Read the Class 6 to 10 science textbooks end to end rather than hunting for obscure facts.
History, culture and the national movement needs a framework rather than memorised dates: major 1857 events, the Moderate and Extremist phases, Gandhian movements, the Constituent Assembly route to independence, and cultural landmarks. Geography, polity and economy covers physical geography of India, rivers, soils and climate, the Constitution's structure, fundamental rights and duties, the parliamentary system, the planning and budget basics. Current events should be handled as a weekly habit: note a few national and international developments each week, including awards, sports, summits and government schemes, and revise them monthly. For state-level context that often supports these topics, the AP polity and Panchayati Raj notes, AP geography notes and AP government schemes notes are useful background reading.
English is the section that surprises Telugu-medium candidates, because the questions stay in English even in the Telugu paper. Plan on grammar basics (tenses, articles, prepositions, subject-verb agreement), vocabulary, synonyms and antonyms, error spotting and short comprehension.
8. Pay, training and pension
The Scale of Pay for post codes 21, 22, 42, 53 and 54 is Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910 as per the Revised Pay Scale 2022. That is the range over a career, not what a new recruit takes home on day one. During institutional training, regular and extended, a cadet receives a stipend fixed by the Government. The notification does not state the amount or the training duration, so any figure circulating online should be checked against an official order. Employees appointed on or after 1 September 2004 are covered by the Contributory Pension Scheme. For allowances, promotions and a realistic picture of duty life, read the salary and job profile guide.
Selected candidates must submit attestation forms and documents, attend the medical examination and join training on the dates specified. Failing to respond or to join on the due date leads to cancellation of provisional selection without prior notice. Anyone already in government service can join training only after being relieved or resigning.
9. Disqualification and antecedents
The notification sets out conditions that bar appointment: forged documents found during antecedent verification, canvassing for support, a prohibited second marriage while a spouse is living, dismissal from government or public-body service, conviction or pending trial for an offence other than technical offences such as motor vehicle or juvenile justice violations, and offences involving moral turpitude. Selection is provisional until original certificates, antecedents and medical fitness are verified, and if false information surfaces even after appointment, the person can be discharged. Genuine documents and honest declarations are therefore part of preparation.
10. A realistic preparation plan
Because the process is sequential, the plan has to be parallel. The written test decides whether you are called, and the physical tests decide whether you stay. Start both on day one.
The written syllabus in twelve weeks
- Weeks 1 to 4: foundation. Arithmetic basics with tables, squares and fractions; reasoning series and coding; Class 6 to 10 science chapters; one polity and one geography topic per week. Take a short mixed test every Sunday.
- Weeks 5 to 8: coverage. Finish history and economy, build weekly current affairs notes, begin timed sectional tests. Maintain an error log that labels each mistake as concept, calculation or carelessness.
- Weeks 9 to 12: simulation. Attempt full 200-question papers in three hours on OMR-style sheets, once or twice a week, and review every wrong and every guessed answer.
Three hours for 200 questions is a little under a minute each. A workable split is to take the arithmetic and reasoning items first, since they are mechanical, then general knowledge, then English, and to mark and skip any item that needs more than about 75 seconds.
The physical tests in parallel
For the Civil stream the 1600 metre run is the compulsory event. Eight minutes means four laps of a 400 metre track at two minutes per lap, a steady pace, not a sprint. Women's qualifying time of 10 minutes 30 seconds works out to roughly 2 minutes 38 seconds per lap. Build up with easy running three or four days a week, add one interval session a week (for example 6 repetitions of 400 metres with a walking recovery), and one longer continuous run. For the 100 metre run, the qualifying 15 seconds is generous for a trained runner but needs practice starts and form. For the long jump, 3.80 metres for men needs a consistent run-up and take-off, which improves quickly with coaching on technique. Either event of the two is enough for the Civil stream, so test both and pick the one you clear comfortably, but keep the other as a backup.
AR candidates should train for all three events and for marks, not just for qualifying, since every second and centimetre earns marks that count towards selection. Measure your height and chest early. Chest expansion of 5 cm is a measured requirement, and it is better to learn your numbers months in advance with a tape measure than at the centre. Because events are timed electronically with no second chance, practise on an actual track where possible, and rehearse your whole PET day: warm-up, order of events and footwear (no spikes).
11. Common mistakes to avoid
- Reading the age limit as "up to 24" and ignoring the cut-off. Check the exact birth-date window.
- Paying the fee and not pressing submit on Stage I.
- Carrying an old NCL or EWS certificate, when the notification demands one issued on or after 1 April 2026.
- Treating the preliminary test as unimportant because its marks do not count. You still have to clear the percentage in a three-hour, 200-question paper.
- Starting running late, then risking injury.
- Assuming a Civil rule applies to AR, where all three PET events are mandatory and scored.
- Relying on social media posts for cut-offs or standards instead of the PDF.
12. Document checklist
Keep originals and attested copies ready before the Stage II form: SSC or equivalent certificate for date of birth, Intermediate certificate or, for SC and ST, the SSC plus Intermediate attendance proofs, latest community certificate, NCL or EWS certificate dated on or after 1 April 2026, study certificates for classes I to VII or Tahsildar residence certificate, relevant special category certificates (Home Guard, police children, NCC, Ex-Servicemen, sports), agency area residence certificate if you claim relaxed standards, and age relaxation proof if any. Failure to produce documents at the PMT and PET leads to rejection, and no additional time is given.
Key facts for exams
- Notification: Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026, 16 September 2026; online application only; dates by press release.
- Civil constable code 21 (542), AR code 22 (285), Firemen 42 (158), Warder men 53 (150), Warder women 54 (21).
- Cut-off date 1 July 2026; age 18 to 24 for codes 21 and 22; relaxations up to 5 years for EWS, BC (NCL), SC and ST.
- Education: Intermediate or equivalent; SC and ST may apply with SSC plus Intermediate appearance.
- Preliminary test: 1 paper, 200 questions, 200 marks, 3 hours; qualifying 40, 35 and 30 per cent; marks not counted for merit.
- PMT men: 167.6 cm height, 86.3 cm chest, 5 cm expansion. PMT women: 152.5 cm height, 40 kg.
- PET Civil: 1600 m plus either 100 m or long jump, qualifying only. PET AR: all three, 100 marks.
- Final written test: 200 questions in 3 hours; Civil merit on 200 marks; AR on 100 plus 100 PET marks.
- Local rule: first 5 per cent open, remaining 95 per cent local. Women: 33 1/3 per cent Civil, 20 per cent AR.
- Pay Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910; contributory pension for those appointed on or after 1 September 2004.
10 practice questions
1. On what date is the age limit counted for the 2026 SCT Police Constable posts? (A) Date of application (B) 1 July 2026 (C) Date of the written test (D) 1 January 2026
2. A general candidate for Civil constable must have been born not earlier than which date? (A) 2 July 2002 (B) 1 July 2002 (C) 2 July 2001 (D) 1 January 2003
3. How many questions does the preliminary written test for constables contain? (A) 100 (B) 150 (C) 200 (D) 250
4. The minimum chest measurement for a general male candidate, on full inspiration, is: (A) 80 cm (B) 84 cm (C) 86.3 cm (D) 90 cm
5. Which PET event is compulsory for every Civil constable candidate? (A) 100 m run (B) Long jump (C) 1600 m run (D) Shot put
6. For the AR stream, how many marks does the PET carry in total? (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 100 (D) 200
7. What is the qualifying 1600 m time for women candidates? (A) 8 min (B) 9 min 30 sec (C) 10 min 30 sec (D) 12 min
8. Under the local candidate rule, how are posts filled after the first 5 per cent open merit posts? (A) Entirely by non-locals (B) By locals only (C) Equally by locals and non-locals (D) By lottery
9. For post code 21, what share of vacancies in each category is reserved horizontally for women? (A) 20 per cent (B) 25 per cent (C) 33 1/3 per cent (D) 50 per cent
10. In case of equal marks within a category, preference goes to the candidate who is: (A) Younger (B) Born earlier (C) Taller (D) From the same district as the board
Answers
| Question | Answer | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | Age and education are counted as on 1 July 2026 |
| 2 | A | The permitted window runs from 2 July 2002 to 1 July 2008 |
| 3 | C | One paper with 200 objective questions for 200 marks |
| 4 | C | Men: 86.3 cm with at least 5 cm expansion |
| 5 | C | The 1600 m run is mandatory, plus one of 100 m or long jump |
| 6 | C | The AR PET carries 100 marks, split 40, 30 and 30. The combined AR merit is 200 marks (100 written plus 100 PET), which is why D is a distractor |
| 7 | C | Women: 10 minutes 30 seconds |
| 8 | B | After the first 5 per cent, the remaining 95 per cent are for local candidates |
| 9 | C | One third of each category is reserved for women in code 21 |
| 10 | B | The notification gives preference to the candidate born earlier |
Frequently asked questions
Can a graduate apply for the constable post? Yes. The notification says candidates with higher qualification are considered along with those who hold the prescribed qualification, but the age limit still applies.
Does the preliminary written test count towards the final merit? No. Marks are used only to decide who qualifies for the physical tests, with minimums of 40, 35 and 30 per cent by category.
Are PET marks counted in selection? For Civil constables, no, the PET is qualifying. For AR constables, the PET is scored out of 100 and counts towards the final merit.
Is there negative marking? The awarding-of-marks clause mentions full marks for a correct answer and zero for an unattempted question. It describes no deduction for wrong answers, so check the instructions on your hall ticket.
When do applications open? The notification says the dates will be announced through a separate press release. Check slprb.ap.gov.in.
Can women apply? Yes, for post codes 21 and 22 and for Warder (Women), post code 54. Firemen and Warder (Men) are open to men only.
Do non-local candidates have a chance? Only in the first 5 per cent of posts, which are filled on open merit. The remaining 95 per cent go to local candidates.
Related reading
- AP Police SI recruitment guide
- AP Police Constable vs SI
- AP Police Constable salary and job profile
- Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026
- AP economy and budget notes
- Telugu edition: AP పోలీస్ కానిస్టేబుల్ గైడ్
Practise on pareeksha.in
Once you have mapped the syllabus, test yourself under timed conditions. Pareeksha.in offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks, and you can begin with a free mini mock or move on to the online test series. Mock tests help with pace and accuracy only. Eligibility, pattern and dates always come from the official notification.
Sources and verification
Opened and read for this guide:
- State Level Police Recruitment Board, Andhra Pradesh, home page and recruitments page (slprb.ap.gov.in), which list the notifications of 16 September 2026.
- SLPRB notification Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026 dated 16 September 2026 (SCT PC Civil and AR, Firemen, Warders), including Annexures I and II.
- SLPRB press release page (slprb.ap.gov.in), which shows the press notes dated 16 and 17 September 2026.
Not verified: the stipend amount, the length of training, the probation period, allowance rates and promotion timelines are not stated in the notification, so they are left out or hedged. Application and exam dates had not been announced when this was checked in October 2026. The "born on or after 2 July 1997" figure for relaxed categories is our own arithmetic from the five-year rule. Always confirm against the live notification and any corrigendum.
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