The Sub-Inspector (SI) post is the first officer rank in the Andhra Pradesh Police that a candidate can enter by direct recruitment. It asks for a degree, a longer and heavier written examination than the constable post, and the same measured physical tests. It is also the post where the written process contains something many applicants do not expect: two descriptive language papers that you must pass but whose marks are not counted for merit. Missing that single detail has ended more attempts than any difficult question.
This guide is built from the official SLPRB notification Rc.No.81/SLPRB/Rect.1/2026 dated 16 September 2026, which covers SCT Sub-Inspectors (Civil), SCT Reserve Sub-Inspectors (AR) and Sub-Inspectors in the Special Protection Force (SPF). The facts are as on October 2026. The notification says vacancies are provisional and the Board may issue corrigenda, so always check slprb.ap.gov.in for the live version. For the constable route, see the AP Police Constable guide. To decide between the two, read Constable vs SI, and for pay and duty life see the constable salary and job profile guide. The wider state-exam picture is in the Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026 guide.
1. The notification at a glance
| Item | What the notification says |
|---|---|
| Notification number and date | Rc.No.81/SLPRB/Rect.1/2026, 16 September 2026 |
| SCT SI (Civil), post code 11 | 253 vacancies, men and women |
| SCT RSI (AR), post code 12 | 116 vacancies, men and women |
| SI in Special Protection Force, post code 31 | 9 vacancies, men only |
| Total | 378 provisional vacancies |
| Cut-off date | 1 July 2026 for age and education |
| Pay scale | Rs 44,570 to Rs 1,27,480 (Revised Pay Scale 2022) |
| Application and exam dates | To be announced separately by press release |
Vacancies are distributed zone-wise, not district-wise as in the constable notification. For SCT SI (Civil) the zone figures are Zone I 42, Zone II 39, Zone III 39, Zone IV 48, Zone V 43 and Zone VI 42, adding up to 253. For RSI (AR) they are 20, 11, 10, 38, 18 and 19, adding up to 116. The nine SPF vacancies are spread over contiguous zonal cadres, with four in Zone II and five in Zone V. A zone groups several districts: Zone I covers Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Parvathipuram Manyam, Visakhapatnam and Anakapalli, while Zone VI covers Nandyal, Ananthapuramu, Kurnool and Sri Sathya Sai. Because you rank zone preferences in the form and the selection list follows your preferences, a zone you leave blank is not considered for you.
2. What "SCT SI" means
SCT stands for Stipendiary Cadet Trainee. Selected candidates join as cadet trainees at a training institution, receive a stipend fixed by the Government during institutional training, and are appointed to the regular pay scale after successfully completing it. Civil and AR posts are governed by the Andhra Pradesh Police (Stipendiary Cadet Trainee) Rules under G.O.Ms.No.315, Home (Pol.C) Department, dated 13 October 1999, as amended. The SPF post is governed by G.O.Ms.No.208, Home (Pol.F) Department, dated 20 August 1999, as amended. The notification does not state the stipend amount or the duration of training, so avoid trusting any figure that is not from an official order.
The three posts differ in what the physical test and final merit contain.
- SI (Civil): station-level officer: registering cases, investigating, maintaining law and order and supervising constables. The physical test is qualifying only.
- Reserve SI (AR): leads armed reserve units. The physical test is scored out of 100 marks and counts in the final merit.
- SI (SPF): the same scoring structure as AR, open only to men, within the Special Protection Force.
3. Eligibility
Educational qualification
As on 1 July 2026 you must hold a degree awarded by any university in India established under a Central, Provincial or State Act, or by an institution recognised by the University Grants Commission, or an equivalent qualification. Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates may apply if they have passed Intermediate or an equivalent examination and are studying for a degree in any university in India. A higher qualification is also acceptable. Degrees obtained through open universities or distance education are accepted only if recognised by the Distance Education Council, and proving that recognition is the candidate's responsibility.
Age limit
For all three posts, a candidate must have attained 21 years and must not have attained 27 years on 1 July 2026. That means a birth date from 2 July 1999 to 1 July 2005, both included.
| Category | Relaxation in upper age limit | Born on or after (arithmetic) |
|---|---|---|
| General | None | 2 July 1999 |
| EWS, BC (Non-Creamy Layer), SC, ST | Up to 5 years | 2 July 1994 |
| State Government employees | Length of regular service, up to 5 years | Depends on service |
| Army, Navy, Air Force service | Service length plus 3 years | Depends on service |
| Whole-time NCC instructors (min 6 months) | Service length plus 3 years | Depends on service |
| Retrenched temporary Census employees (1991) | Up to 3 years | Depends on service |
The "born on or after" column is our own calculation: 27 plus 5 is 32. Employees of APTRANSCO, DISCOMs, APGENCO, corporations, municipalities and local bodies are specifically not covered by the government-service relaxation. As with constables, the online form does not validate age, the date of birth must match the SSC or equivalent certificate, and horoscopes or affidavits are not accepted. The BC relaxation and BC-E reservation are described as subject to pending litigation.
An example: a candidate born on 10 September 1999 is 26 years old on 1 July 2026 and is within the general limit. A candidate born on 1 July 1999 has attained 27 on the cut-off date, so is not. Also note the lower bound: a graduate born on 15 August 2005 is only 20 on the cut-off date and cannot apply even with a degree in hand.
Medical and physical standards
Eyesight standards are the same as for constables: distant vision 6/6 in each eye, near vision as printed (0/5 Snellen), a full field of vision, and no colour blindness or squint. The disqualifying conditions include knock-knees, pigeon chest, flat feet, varicose veins, hammer toes, fractured limbs, decayed teeth, stammering, hard of hearing and abnormal psychological behaviour. Get examined by a Civil Surgeon before applying, as the notification itself recommends.
4. Reservations and special categories
- Women: 33 1/3 per cent of vacancies in each communal category, including EWS, are reserved for women in SI (Civil), and 20 per cent in RSI (AR). It is horizontal and adjusted within the category; unfilled women's posts are filled by men of that category and are not carried forward.
- Communal categories: EWS, BC-A to BC-E, SC (Groups I, II, III) and ST under Rule 22 of the AP State and Subordinate Service Rules, 1996. BC candidates need a Non-Creamy Layer certificate issued on or after 1 April 2026, else they are treated as Open Category without a later chance to switch. EWS candidates need family income below Rs 8 lakh and a Tahsildar certificate dated on or after 1 April 2026.
- Local candidates: the first 5 per cent of posts are filled on open merit between locals and non-locals, and the remaining 95 per cent are for locals, as per G.O.Ms.No.172 cited in the notification. Local status is proven through study certificates for classes I to VII or a residence certificate. Non-locals are treated as Open Category.
- Special categories (horizontal):
| Category | SI (Civil), code 11 | RSI (AR), code 12 | SI (SPF), code 31 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Police Executive (PE) | 5% | 7% | not applicable |
| Meritorious Sportspersons (MSP) | 3% | 3% | 3% |
| NCC | 3% | 3% | 2% |
| Ex-Servicemen | 2% | 2% | 2% |
| Children of Police Personnel (CPP) | 2% | 2% | not applicable |
| Children of deceased or incapacitated police (CDI) | 2% | 2% | not applicable |
| Police Ministerial (PM) | 1% | 1% | not applicable |
| Members of SPF (MSPF) | not applicable | not applicable | 5% |
| Children of SPF members (CSPF) | not applicable | not applicable | 3% |
The Police Executive quota is open to constables, head constables and assistant sub-inspectors of the AP Police who are approved probationers with three years of service on the notification date (time as a stipendiary cadet trainee does not count). It is not open to a person with any major punishment, three or more minor punishments, a punishment in operation, suspension or a pending oral enquiry, desertion, or compulsory retirement or removal. Quota candidates must still pass the examinations and meet the communal minimum marks. The quota simply reserves seats.
5. Application and fee
The process is the same as for constables: pay the fee first on slprb.ap.gov.in, then submit the Stage I form with photo, signature, SSC certificate and any category certificates. Those who qualify in the preliminary written test then upload the Stage II application with certificates before the physical tests. A fee paid without final submission leads to rejection with no refund.
| Candidate | Fee |
|---|---|
| OC (including EWS) and BC, local | Rs 600 |
| SC and ST, local | Rs 300 |
| Non-local candidates | Rs 600 (Open Category) |
One application form is enough even if you want several of the three posts.
6. Selection process
The SI scheme has four steps: a preliminary written test, PMT, PET and a final written examination. Compared with the constable scheme, the preliminary test has two papers, and the final test has four.
Stage 1: Preliminary written test
| Paper | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Arithmetic and test of reasoning or mental ability (SSC standard) | 100 | 100 | 3 hours |
| 2 | General Studies (degree standard) | 100 | 100 | 3 hours |
Both papers are objective, in English, Telugu and Urdu, and are marked on an OMR sheet with a blue or black ball point pen. You have to qualify in each paper separately: 40 per cent for OC including EWS, 35 per cent for BC and 30 per cent for SC and ST. Failing even one paper disqualifies you, and the total of the two papers is not counted for any qualification. The marks have no relevance in the final selection. Special category candidates need the minimum of their communal category.
Stage 2: PMT
| Standard | Men | Women |
|---|---|---|
| Height | At least 167.6 cm | At least 152.5 cm |
| Chest | At least 86.3 cm, with 5 cm expansion | Not applicable |
| Weight | Not applicable | At least 40 kg |
| Relaxed standard for Aboriginal STs of listed agency areas | Height 160 cm, chest 80 cm, expansion 3 cm | Height 150 cm, weight 38 kg |
Measurements are digital and height is taken standing upright. The relaxed standard applies to residents of the agency areas of Vizianagaram, Anakapalli, Polavaram, Alluri Sitharama Raju, Eluru and Parvathipuram Manyam, supported by a residence certificate.
Stage 3: PET
For SCT SI (Civil), men and women must qualify in the 1600 metre run and one of the 100 metre run or the long jump. This is qualifying only.
| Event | General | Ex-Servicemen | Women |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1600 m run | 8 min | 9 min 30 sec | 10 min 30 sec |
| 100 m run | 15 sec | 16.5 sec | 18 sec |
| Long jump | 3.80 m | 3.65 m | 2.75 m |
For RSI (AR) and SI (SPF) all three events are compulsory and carry 100 marks (40 for the 1600 metre run, 30 for the 100 metre run, 30 for the long jump), awarded from a gradation table. A man who runs 1600 metres in 4 minutes or less gets the full 40 marks and one who runs in 8 minutes gets 15. A 100 metre time of 10.5 seconds or less earns 30, and the qualifying 15 seconds earns 10. The long jump earns 30 for 5.61 metres or more and 10 for the qualifying 3.80 metres. These marks are added to the written marks for AR and SPF merit. Events are timed by electronic devices, spike shoes are not allowed, once an event is conducted the result is final with no re-test, and every candidate, including special category, must participate.
Stage 4: Final written examination
Candidates who clear the PET take four papers of three hours each.
| Paper | Subject | Type | Marks for code 11 | Marks for codes 12 and 31 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| I | English, degree standard | Descriptive | 100 | 100 |
| II | Telugu or Urdu, degree standard | Descriptive | 100 | 100 |
| III | Arithmetic and reasoning, SSC standard (200 questions) | Objective | 200 | 100 |
| IV | General Studies, degree standard (200 questions) | Objective | 200 | 100 |
You must reach the minimum in each of the four papers: 40 per cent for OC, 35 per cent for BC, 30 per cent for SC and ST. Papers I and II are qualifying in nature, and their marks are not taken into account for selection. If you do not reach the minimum in Paper I or II, your case is not considered further, however well you do in Papers III and IV. Papers III and IV are objective and may be taken in English, Telugu or Urdu, and the language choice is declared in the application and cannot be changed later. Revaluation of answer sheets is not entertained, though re-counting of marks may be considered.
How the merit list is built:
- SI (Civil), code 11: aggregate of Paper III (200) and Paper IV (200), a total of 400 marks.
- RSI (AR), code 12, and SI (SPF), code 31: Paper III (100) plus Paper IV (100) plus the PET (100), a total of 300 marks.
Ties in a category are broken in favour of the candidate born earlier. No waiting list is maintained.
7. Syllabus in detail
Annexure II of the notification gives the syllabus for the written papers. Here is how to read it.
Paper I, English (descriptive). Understanding of the language, correct usage and writing ability. The notification lists short essay, comprehension, precis, letter writing, paragraph or report writing and translation from English to Telugu.
Paper II, Telugu or Urdu (descriptive). The same format in the chosen language, with translation from that language into English.
Paper III, Arithmetic and reasoning. Arithmetic covers number system, simple and compound interest, ratio and proportion, average, percentage, profit and loss, time and work, work and wages, time and distance, clocks and calendars, partnership and mensuration. Reasoning includes verbal and non-verbal types: analogies, similarities and differences, spatial visualisation and orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making and visual memory.
Paper IV, General Studies (degree standard). General science including contemporary developments in science and technology, everyday observation and environmental issues; current events of national and international importance; history of India with a broad understanding of its social, economic, cultural and political aspects, and the Indian National Movement; geography of India; Indian polity and economy including the political system, rural development, planning and economic reforms.
There is no separate law paper and no Andhra Pradesh-specific paper in this syllabus. State-level facts can still support history, geography, polity and current events answers, and they are helpful background; the state hub guides such as AP geography notes, AP polity and Panchayati Raj notes, AP economy and budget notes and AP government schemes notes are suitable for that. The Board states it does not prescribe a textbook, and disputes are settled by a subject experts committee. For each objective question the marking clause awards full marks for a single correct answer and zero if no bubble is darkened; the notification describes no deduction for wrong answers, but confirm in the hall ticket instructions.
8. How to prepare each paper
The descriptive papers
Because Papers I and II are qualifying, the aim is a safe pass, not a high score, but a safe pass takes practice. Many graduates read widely and write rarely.
- Essay: write 250 to 300 words with an opening line, three body paragraphs (each with one point and one example) and a closing line. Practise one essay a week on topics from daily life, public administration and society, using plain sentences.
- Comprehension and precis: a precis should be about one third of the passage length, in your own words, in the third person, with no opinions added. Practise by shortening a newspaper editorial to 100 words.
- Letter writing: learn the format of a formal letter: sender's address, date, receiver, subject line, salutation, body in three short paragraphs, closing. A formal complaint letter to a Station House Officer is a natural practice topic.
- Report writing: headline, place and date line, two or three paragraphs covering what, when, where, who, why, and a short concluding line.
- Translation: translate short passages in both directions every week, and read the English version aloud afterwards. Translate meaning, not word by word.
Write with a pen on paper and time yourself. Handwriting speed, legibility and spelling are all tested indirectly. Ask a teacher or a friend to mark one paper a month, since you cannot easily judge your own writing.
Paper III: arithmetic and reasoning
The SSC-standard arithmetic is a high-scoring section for those who build speed. A compound interest example: Rs 10,000 at 10 per cent a year for 2 years amounts to 10,000 multiplied by 1.1 twice, which is Rs 12,100, so the compound interest is Rs 2,100 whereas simple interest would be Rs 2,000. Seeing the difference of Rs 100 (one year's interest on the first year's interest) helps you recognise the pattern in exam questions. A work example: A can finish a job in 12 days and B in 18 days. Together they do 1/12 plus 1/18, which is 5/36 of the job per day, so they finish in 36/5 days, which is 7.2 days. Practise converting every such problem into a fraction of work per day.
For reasoning, practise sets of 25 questions in 20 minutes: series, coding, directions, blood relations, syllogisms, rankings, clocks and calendars, and a few figure-based items. A calendar example: if 1 January of a non-leap year falls on a Monday, then 1 January of the next year is a Tuesday, since 365 days leave a remainder of 1 when divided by 7.
Paper IV: General Studies at degree level
Degree standard means you must understand causes and linkages, not just memorise facts. Divide the syllabus into five blocks: science and technology, current events, history and national movement, geography, and polity with economy. For each block, make a one-page summary and revise it weekly. For current events, keep a monthly notebook of national and international developments and revise it before every mock. In science, be comfortable with everyday applications, environmental issues and recent developments in space, health and information technology. In polity, know the Constitution's structure, fundamental rights, directive principles, Parliament, federalism, local governance and the major constitutional bodies. In economy, know planning, budgets, banking basics, inflation, rural development and reform milestones. Because Paper IV has 200 questions, speed and accuracy under timed conditions are part of the skill.
A twelve-month outline
- Months 1 to 3: foundations in arithmetic, reasoning, and basic school-level science, history and geography. Begin writing practice (one essay and one letter a week) and start running.
- Months 4 to 6: general studies coverage; weekly current affairs; fortnightly sectional tests in Papers III and IV; monthly writing evaluation.
- Months 7 to 9: revision cycle one; full-length 200-question practice papers of three hours each for Papers III and IV; prelims-style 100-question papers; continue the writing practice.
- Months 10 to 12: revision cycle two, sharper error logs, physical test simulation, document preparation.
If the notification date arrives sooner than your plan, the priority order is the prelims papers, then the physical test, then the descriptive papers, and then the depth of Paper IV.
9. Physical preparation
The 1600 metre run is compulsory for every SI stream. Eight minutes means two minutes per lap of a 400 metre track. A candidate who runs a first lap at 1 minute 45 seconds will often slow in the third lap, so aim for even splits. For women, 10 minutes 30 seconds means about 2 minutes 38 seconds per lap. Train three to four days a week with easy runs, add one interval day (for instance six repetitions of 400 metres with a walking recovery) and one long steady run. For the Civil stream, choose between the 100 metre run and the long jump, and practise both. For the AR and SPF streams, practise all three events with the aim of scoring, not merely qualifying, because the gradation table rewards faster times and longer jumps with more marks that go into the merit list.
Know your height and chest numbers early: the minimum chest is 86.3 cm on full inspiration with an expansion of at least 5 cm, and these are measured on a digital system. Rehearse the whole PET day, including warm-up, event order and footwear without spikes, since there is no re-test. For deeper practice, see the Telugu PMT and PET preparation guide.
10. Pay, training and pension
The Scale of Pay for SCT SI (Civil), RSI (AR) and SI (SPF) is Rs 44,570 to Rs 1,27,480 as per the Revised Pay Scale 2022. It is a scale that increases with service, so the maximum is not the starting figure. During institutional training the cadet receives a stipend as fixed by the Government, and after training the appointment is in the regular pay scale. Those appointed on or after 1 September 2004 are covered by the Contributory Pension Scheme. Selected candidates must submit attestation forms, attend a medical examination and join training on the dates fixed, or provisional selection can be cancelled. Government employees can join training only after relief or resignation.
11. Disqualification and verification
The notification bars appointment on grounds such as forged documents, canvassing for support, a prohibited marriage while a spouse is alive, dismissal from government or public-body service, conviction or a pending trial (other than technical offences like motor vehicle or juvenile justice violations) and offences involving moral turpitude. Selection is provisional until original certificates, antecedents and medical fitness are verified, and false information discovered later can lead to discharge.
12. Common mistakes
- Treating Papers I and II as optional because they are not counted in merit. They are mandatory to pass.
- Preparing only for the prelims papers and ignoring written practice until the final stage.
- Missing the separate qualifying marks in every paper of the preliminary and final tests.
- Assuming a degree in the final year is enough. The cut-off is 1 July 2026 and only SC and ST candidates have a studying-for-degree concession.
- Using distance degrees without checking recognition.
- Skipping running practice while preparing for the written tests.
- Overlooking that AR and SPF merit includes PET marks and different mark weights.
Key facts for exams
- Notification: Rc.No.81/SLPRB/Rect.1/2026, 16 September 2026; 378 provisional vacancies (253 Civil, 116 AR, 9 SPF).
- Age 21 to 27 on 1 July 2026; born 2 July 1999 to 1 July 2005; relaxation up to 5 years for EWS, BC (NCL), SC, ST.
- Education: degree; SC and ST may apply with Intermediate and be studying for a degree.
- Prelims: two papers of 100 questions each, qualifying separately; marks not counted for merit.
- Final: four papers; I and II descriptive and qualifying; III and IV objective.
- Civil merit: Papers III and IV, 400 marks. AR and SPF merit: 100 plus 100 plus 100 PET, 300 marks.
- PET Civil: qualifying (1600 m plus 100 m or long jump). PET AR and SPF: all three events, 100 marks.
- Fee Rs 600 (OC and BC) and Rs 300 (SC and ST). Pay Rs 44,570 to Rs 1,27,480.
- Local rule: first 5 per cent open, rest 95 per cent local. Women: 33 1/3 per cent Civil, 20 per cent AR.
10 practice questions
1. The maximum age (not to be attained) for a general SI candidate on 1 July 2026 is: (A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 30
2. How many papers are in the SI preliminary written test? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
3. Which papers of the SI final written examination are qualifying in nature? (A) III and IV (B) I and II (C) I and IV (D) None
4. For SCT SI (Civil), the final merit is based on: (A) Papers I to IV (B) Paper III and Paper IV, 400 marks (C) Paper IV plus PET (D) Interview
5. The PET for SCT SI (Civil) is: (A) Scored out of 100 (B) Qualifying only (C) Not conducted (D) Only for women
6. What is the minimum height for a general male candidate in the PMT? (A) 165 cm (B) 167.6 cm (C) 170 cm (D) 175 cm
7. The pay scale for SCT SI posts starts at: (A) Rs 25,220 (B) Rs 35,000 (C) Rs 44,570 (D) Rs 50,000
8. Which category needs three years of approved probation service as a quota condition for SI? (A) Meritorious Sportsperson (B) NCC (C) Police Executive (D) Ex-Servicemen
9. The OC qualifying percentage in each paper is: (A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 50
10. Which post of the notification is open to men only? (A) SCT SI (Civil) (B) SCT RSI (AR) (C) SI (SPF) (D) All
Answers
| Question | Answer | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | Must not have attained 27 on 1 July 2026 |
| 2 | B | Arithmetic and reasoning, and General Studies, 100 questions each |
| 3 | B | English and Telugu or Urdu are descriptive and qualifying |
| 4 | B | Papers III and IV, 200 marks each |
| 5 | B | Qualifying only for Civil; AR and SPF are scored |
| 6 | B | 167.6 cm for men |
| 7 | C | Rs 44,570 to Rs 1,27,480 |
| 8 | C | PE: approved probationers with 3 years of service |
| 9 | C | 40 per cent for OC, 35 for BC, 30 for SC and ST |
| 10 | C | The SPF post is for men only |
Frequently asked questions
Is there an interview for the SI post? The selection scheme in the notification has a preliminary test, PMT, PET and a final written examination. No interview stage is described.
Do the English and Telugu papers add to my merit score? No. They are qualifying papers, but failing either one ends your candidature.
Can I choose the language for the objective papers? Yes, you can choose English, Telugu or Urdu for Papers III and IV, and you declare it in the application. It cannot be changed afterwards.
Is a final-year degree student eligible? The general rule is a degree as on 1 July 2026. The concession for studying candidates is mentioned only for SC and ST candidates.
Can a constable apply? Yes, within the age limit. There is also a Police Executive quota for eligible serving constables, head constables and ASIs.
Is there negative marking? The notification describes full marks for a correct answer and zero for no answer, with no deduction mentioned. Check the instructions printed for your exam.
Where will I find application dates? The Board will announce them through a press release on slprb.ap.gov.in.
Related reading
- AP Police Constable guide
- AP Police Constable vs SI
- Constable salary and job profile
- Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026
- Telugu edition: AP పోలీస్ SI గైడ్
Practise on pareeksha.in
After you have studied a block, test it under time. Pareeksha.in offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks, and you can start with the free mini mock or the online test series. Mocks build speed and accuracy, but only the official notification decides the pattern and dates.
Sources and verification
Opened and read for this guide:
- State Level Police Recruitment Board, Andhra Pradesh, home page, recruitments page and press release page (slprb.ap.gov.in).
- SLPRB notification Rc.No.81/SLPRB/Rect.1/2026 dated 16 September 2026 for SCT SI (Civil), SCT RSI (AR) and SI (SPF), including Annexures I and II.
Not verified: stipend amount, training duration, probation period, allowances and promotion timelines are not in the notification and are left out or hedged. Application and exam dates had not been announced when checked in October 2026. The "born on or after 2 July 1994" figure is our own arithmetic from the five-year relaxation rule. The preparation plans and writing tips are our own suggestions, not Board guidance.
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