← Index: Indian Polity — Complete GuideChapter 20

Study Guide · Chapter 20

Full-Length Mock Test

Free study material · concepts, shortcuts & solved questions

✍️ Select any text to highlight or save it

100 Original MCQs in UPSC Prelims Format, Covering the Entire Syllabus (Chapters 1–18)

Instructions

Attempt all 100 questions before checking answers.
Recommended time: 120 minutes (matching the pace of an actual UPSC Prelims GS Paper I sitting, proportionally scaled).
Answers with brief explanations follow the question set.
Questions are grouped by chapter for easy diagnostic review, but attempt them in one sitting, in order, to simulate real exam conditions (topics are NOT randomized/shuffled in the actual exam either, but mixing your revision this way tests recall under topic-switching, which mirrors real exam pressure).

Section A: Historical Background & Salient Features (Q1–15)

Q2. Who acted as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Sir B.N. Rau (c) K.M. Munshi (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Q3. The Objectives Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on: (a) 13 December 1946 (b) 22 January 1947 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 26 January 1950

Q4. Which of the following features was borrowed from the Australian Constitution? (a) Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Concurrent List (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Federation with a strong Centre

Q5. The Preamble describes India as a "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic." Which words were added by the 42nd Amendment? (a) Sovereign, Democratic (b) Socialist, Secular (c) Democratic, Republic (d) Sovereign, Republic

Q6. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is part of the Constitution? (a) Berubari Union case (b) Kesavananda Bharati case (c) Golaknath case (d) Minerva Mills case

Q7. How many Fundamental Duties are there under Article 51A? (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12

Q8. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under: (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 32 (d) Article 300A

Q9. DPSPs are contained in which Part of the Constitution? (a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part IVA (d) Part V

Q10. Which writ questions the legality of a person's claim to public office? (a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari (c) Quo Warranto (d) Prohibition

Q11. The 44th Amendment removed which right from Part III of the Constitution? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Property (c) Right to Freedom (d) Right to Education

Q12. Which Committee's recommendation led to the incorporation of Fundamental Duties? (a) Sarkaria Commission (b) Swaran Singh Committee (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (d) Santhanam Committee

Q13. Article 21A relates to: (a) Right to Property (b) Right to Education (c) Right to Privacy (d) Right to Information

Q14. The doctrine that Parliament cannot alter the "basic structure" of the Constitution emerged from: (a) Golaknath case (b) Kesavananda Bharati case (c) Minerva Mills case (d) Shankari Prasad case

Q15. Which of the following is a Gandhian Principle among the DPSP? (a) Article 39 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 48A

Section B: Union and State Government (Q16–35)

Q16. The President of India is elected by: (a) Direct popular vote (b) An electoral college of MPs and MLAs (c) Parliament alone (d) The Supreme Court

Q17. The impeachment of the President is governed by which Article? (a) Article 56 (b) Article 60 (c) Article 61 (d) Article 72

Q18. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of: (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) NITI Aayog (d) UPSC

Q19. Which Article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances? (a) Article 72 (b) Article 111 (c) Article 123 (d) Article 143

Q20. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to: (a) The President (b) The Rajya Sabha (c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Chief Justice of India

Q21. What is the maximum size of the Union Council of Ministers, as capped by the 91st Amendment? (a) 10% of Lok Sabha strength (b) 15% of Lok Sabha strength (c) 20% of Lok Sabha strength (d) 25% of Lok Sabha strength

Q22. The minimum age for Rajya Sabha membership is: (a) 21 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years

Q23. Money Bills can be introduced only in: (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha (c) Either House (d) A joint sitting

Q24. The Public Accounts Committee's Chairman is conventionally from: (a) The ruling party (b) The Opposition (c) The Rajya Sabha exclusively (d) Nominated by the President

Q25. The Estimates Committee consists of members from: (a) Lok Sabha only (b) Rajya Sabha only (c) Both Houses equally (d) Both Houses, with Lok Sabha having more members

Q26. The Governor of a state is appointed by: (a) The Chief Minister (b) The President (c) The state Legislative Assembly (d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Q27. Under Article 213, the Governor can: (a) Grant pardons for death sentences (b) Promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session (c) Appoint Supreme Court judges (d) Dissolve Parliament

Q28. The maximum strength of a state Legislative Council cannot exceed what fraction of the Assembly's strength? (a) 1/4th (b) 1/3rd (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3rd

Q29. How many states currently have a Legislative Council? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

Q30. The Attorney General of India is appointed under: (a) Article 74 (b) Article 76 (c) Article 148 (d) Article 165

Q31. A No-Confidence Motion requires the support of at least how many members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha? (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 545 (all members)

Q32. "Zero Hour" in Indian parliamentary practice: (a) Is explicitly defined in the Constitution (b) Immediately follows Question Hour and is a convention, not a formal rule (c) Occurs only during budget sessions (d) Is presided over by the Vice-President

Q33. The Governor's pardoning power under Article 161 does NOT extend to: (a) Fines (b) Imprisonment (c) Death sentences (d) Suspension of sentence

Q34. Which Amendment allowed one Governor to be appointed for two or more states? (a) 7th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 73rd Amendment

Q35. The 91st Amendment prescribes a minimum number of ministers in a state Council of Ministers as: (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 20

Section C: UTs, Local Government, and Judiciary (Q36–55)

Q36. Which Union Territory does NOT have its own legislature? (a) Delhi (b) Puducherry (c) Chandigarh (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Q37. The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in which states? (a) Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura (b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (c) Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya (d) All North-Eastern states

Q39. How many subjects are in the Eleventh Schedule? (a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 29 (d) 31

Q40. How many subjects are in the Twelfth Schedule? (a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 29 (d) 31

Q41. The State Election Commission conducts elections to: (a) Parliament (b) State Legislatures (c) Panchayats and Municipalities (d) The office of President

Q42. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended: (a) Two-tier Panchayati Raj (b) Three-tier Panchayati Raj (c) Constitutional status for Panchayats (d) Abolition of Panchayats

Q43. District Judges are appointed by: (a) The President (b) The Chief Justice of India (c) The Governor, in consultation with the High Court (d) The State Public Service Commission

Q44. Which Article gives High Courts power to issue writs "for any other purpose," in addition to Fundamental Rights enforcement? (a) Article 32 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 226 (d) Article 227

Q45. The retirement age for Supreme Court judges is: (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 70

Q46. The retirement age for High Court judges is: (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 70

Q47. The NJAC was struck down as unconstitutional in which case? (a) Second Judges Case (b) Third Judges Case (c) Fourth Judges Case (2015) (d) Kesavananda Bharati case

Q48. Lok Adalats derive their statutory basis from: (a) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (b) The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 (c) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (d) The Civil Procedure Code, 1908

Q49. A Nyayadhikari presiding over a Gram Nyayalaya has powers equivalent to: (a) A District Judge (b) A Judicial Magistrate of First Class (c) A High Court judge (d) A Sessions Judge

Q50. Sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court (as per the most recent 2026 development) is: (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 42

Q51. The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration of Scheduled Areas primarily through: (a) Elected Autonomous District Councils (b) The Governor, with an advisory Tribes Advisory Council (c) The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs directly (d) The State Election Commission

Q52. PESA, 1996, extends Panchayati Raj provisions with modifications to: (a) Sixth Schedule Areas (b) Fifth Schedule Areas (c) Union Territories (d) Metropolitan areas

Q53. A Metropolitan Planning Committee is required for areas with a population of: (a) 5 lakh or more (b) 10 lakh or more (c) 15 lakh or more (d) 20 lakh or more

Q54. Article 239AA provides special status to: (a) Puducherry (b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Delhi (d) Chandigarh

Q55. Delhi's Legislative Assembly cannot legislate on which of the following? (a) Health and Education (b) Police, Public Order, and Land (c) Transport (d) Local taxation

Section D: Constitutional & Non-Constitutional Bodies (Q56–70)

Q56. The Election Commission is established under which Article? (a) Article 280 (b) Article 315 (c) Article 324 (d) Article 148

Q57. The CAG is appointed under which Article? (a) Article 148 (b) Article 280 (c) Article 315 (d) Article 324

Q58. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and how many other members? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q59. The CEC can be removed: (a) At the President's pleasure (b) In the same manner as a Supreme Court judge (c) By a simple Cabinet decision (d) Only by the CJI's recommendation

Q60. UPSC's advice on recruitment matters is: (a) Legally binding on the government (b) Recommendatory, though non-acceptance must be explained to Parliament (c) Binding only for All-India Services (d) Subject to Supreme Court approval

Q61. NITI Aayog was established by: (a) An Act of Parliament (b) An executive resolution (c) A constitutional amendment (d) A Supreme Court directive

Q62. The NHRC was established under: (a) The Constitution directly (b) The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (c) An executive resolution (d) The CVC Act, 2003

Q64. Which of the following transitioned from a statutory to a constitutional body? (a) NHRC (b) CVC (c) NCBC (d) NITI Aayog

Q65. The CBI derives its investigative powers from: (a) A dedicated CBI Act (b) The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (c) The CVC Act, 2003 (d) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Q67. Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog? (a) The Union Finance Minister (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Vice-Chairperson (d) The President

Q68. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) concerned appointments to: (a) UPSC (b) The Election Commission (c) The CAG (d) The Finance Commission

Q69. The Central Information Commission was established under: (a) The RTI Act, 2005 (b) The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (c) The CVC Act, 2003 (d) The Lokpal Act, 2013

Q70. Which body reviews UPSC's annual report along with a memorandum on non-accepted recommendations? (a) The President alone (b) Parliament (c) The Supreme Court (d) The CAG

Section E: Emergency, Amendment, Federalism, and Cross-Cutting Topics (Q71–100)

Q71. National Emergency is declared under which Article? (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368

Q72. Financial Emergency has been invoked how many times in Indian history? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Q73. The ground "internal disturbance" was replaced by "armed rebellion" for National Emergency by which Amendment? (a) 38th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 91st Amendment

Q74. Which Amendment made Presidential assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills mandatory? (a) 1st Amendment (b) 24th Amendment (c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment

Q75. Amending the provisions relating to the Supreme Court and High Courts requires: (a) Simple majority (b) Special majority only (c) Special majority plus state ratification (d) A referendum

Q76. The residuary legislative power in India vests with: (a) The states (b) Parliament (c) The Supreme Court (d) The Election Commission

Q77. In case of a conflict between a Central and state law on a Concurrent List subject, generally: (a) The state law prevails always (b) The Central law prevails, unless the state law received Presidential assent (c) Neither law applies (d) The Supreme Court automatically strikes down both

Q78. The Inter-State Council is established under: (a) Article 262 (b) Article 263 (c) Article 280 (d) Article 356

Q79. The GST Council was established by which Amendment? (a) 99th Amendment (b) 100th Amendment (c) 101st Amendment (d) 102nd Amendment

Q80. In the GST Council, the voting weight of the Centre is: (a) 1/4th (b) 1/3rd (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3rd

Q81. Hindi is: (a) The national language of India (b) The official language of the Union (c) Both national and official language (d) Neither national nor official language

Q82. How many languages are in the Eighth Schedule? (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24

Q83. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) primarily curbed the misuse of: (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368

Q84. The phrase "indestructible Union of destructible states" is associated with: (a) Kesavananda Bharati case (b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India (c) Minerva Mills case (d) S.R. Bommai case

Q85. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which Schedule? (a) Ninth Schedule (b) Tenth Schedule (c) Eleventh Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule

Q86. The 2/3rd "merger" exception under the Anti-Defection Law replaced an earlier exception of: (a) 1/4th split (b) 1/3rd split (c) 1/2 split (d) There was no earlier exception

Q87. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) held that: (a) All Ninth Schedule laws are permanently immune from judicial review (b) Ninth Schedule laws added after 24 April 1973 can be tested against the basic structure (c) The Ninth Schedule is unconstitutional (d) The Ninth Schedule applies only to land reform laws

Q88. The 42nd Amendment is often called the: (a) Mini-Constitution (b) Golden Amendment (c) Emergency Amendment (d) Federal Amendment

Q89. Which Amendment introduced EWS reservation? (a) 101st Amendment (b) 102nd Amendment (c) 103rd Amendment (d) 104th Amendment

Q90. The 104th Amendment primarily dealt with: (a) GST implementation (b) Removal of Anglo-Indian nominations and extension of SC/ST reservation (c) NCBC's constitutional status (d) Cooperative societies

Q91. Which case established the "golden triangle" reading of Articles 14, 19, and 21? (a) A.K. Gopalan case (b) Maneka Gandhi case (c) Kesavananda Bharati case (d) Golaknath case

Q92. The Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right in: (a) Navtej Singh Johar case (b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case (c) Joseph Shine case (d) Shayara Bano case

Q93. The "creamy layer" concept for OBC reservation originated in: (a) Champakam Dorairajan case (b) Indra Sawhney case (c) M. Nagaraj case (d) Jarnail Singh case

Q94. Which Committee's recommendations led to the establishment of the CVC? (a) Santhanam Committee (b) Sarkaria Commission (c) Kothari Commission (d) Vohra Committee

Q95. The Sarkaria Commission examined: (a) Electoral reforms (b) Centre-state relations (c) Judicial reforms (d) Panchayati Raj

Q96. Article 371A provides special protections for: (a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland (c) Sikkim (d) Manipur

Q97. Which of the following is an example of "asymmetric federalism" in India? (a) All states having identical powers (b) Special provisions for Nagaland, Sikkim, and other states under Article 371-series (c) The uniform application of the Seventh Schedule (d) The existence of the Rajya Sabha

Q98. The Official Language Commission is constituted by the President: (a) Every year (b) 5 years after commencement, and at 10-year intervals thereafter (c) Only once (d) Every 5 years without exception

Q99. Which of the following correctly pairs a case with its holding? (a) Golaknath — Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights (b) Minerva Mills — FR-DPSP harmony is part of basic structure (c) Champakam Dorairajan — DPSP prevails over FR (d) Shankari Prasad — amendment is "law" under Article 13(2) Answer choices reflect the correct pairing among these four options.

Q100. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between NITI Aayog and the erstwhile Planning Commission? (a) NITI Aayog has greater fund-allocation power (b) NITI Aayog is a policy think tank without the Planning Commission's fund-allocation lever, emphasizing cooperative federalism (c) They are functionally identical (d) NITI Aayog is a statutory body while the Planning Commission was constitutional

Answer Key with Brief Explanations

Section A: 1-(b) 1937; 2-(b) B.N. Rau; 3-(b) 22 Jan 1947; 4-(b) Concurrent List; 5-(b) Socialist, Secular; 6-(b) Kesavananda Bharati; 7-(c) 11; 8-(c) Article 32; 9-(b) Part IV; 10-(c) Quo Warranto; 11-(b) Right to Property; 12-(b) Swaran Singh Committee; 13-(b) Right to Education; 14-(b) Kesavananda Bharati; 15-(b) Article 40 (Gandhian)

Section B: 16-(b) Electoral college; 17-(c) Article 61; 18-(b) Rajya Sabha; 19-(c) Article 123; 20-(c) Lok Sabha; 21-(b) 15%; 22-(c) 30 years; 23-(b) Lok Sabha; 24-(b) Opposition; 25-(a) Lok Sabha only; 26-(b) President; 27-(b) Promulgate ordinances; 28-(b) 1/3rd; 29-(c) 6; 30-(b) Article 76; 31-(b) 50; 32-(b) Convention, not formal rule; 33-(c) Death sentences; 34-(a) 7th Amendment; 35-(b) 12

Section C: 36-(c) Chandigarh; 37-(b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram; 38-(b) 1993; 39-(c) 29; 40-(a) 18; 41-(c) Panchayats and Municipalities; 42-(b) Three-tier; 43-(c) Governor, in HC consultation; 44-(c) Article 226; 45-(c) 65; 46-(b) 62; 47-(c) Fourth Judges Case; 48-(a) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987; 49-(b) JMFC; 50-(c) 38 (as of the May 2026 ordinance); 51-(b) Governor + TAC; 52-(b) Fifth Schedule Areas; 53-(b) 10 lakh or more; 54-(c) Delhi; 55-(b) Police, Public Order, Land

Section D: 56-(c) Article 324; 57-(a) Article 148; 58-(c) 4; 59-(b) Like a SC judge; 60-(b) Recommendatory; 61-(b) Executive resolution; 62-(b) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; 63-(c) 2003; 64-(c) NCBC; 65-(b) DSPE Act, 1946; 66-(b) 2013; 67-(b) Prime Minister; 68-(b) Election Commission; 69-(a) RTI Act, 2005; 70-(b) Parliament

Section E: 71-(a) Article 352; 72-(a) 0; 73-(c) 44th Amendment; 74-(b) 24th Amendment; 75-(c) Special majority + state ratification; 76-(b) Parliament; 77-(b) Central law prevails unless state law has Presidential assent; 78-(b) Article 263; 79-(c) 101st Amendment; 80-(b) 1/3rd; 81-(b) Official language; 82-(c) 22; 83-(b) Article 356; 84-(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India; 85-(b) Tenth Schedule; 86-(b) 1/3rd split; 87-(b) Post-1973 laws testable; 88-(a) Mini-Constitution; 89-(c) 103rd Amendment; 90-(b) Anglo-Indian/SC-ST reservation; 91-(b) Maneka Gandhi case; 92-(b) Puttaswamy case; 93-(b) Indra Sawhney case; 94-(a) Santhanam Committee; 95-(b) Centre-state relations; 96-(b) Nagaland; 97-(b) Article 371-series; 98-(b) 5 years then 10-year intervals; 99-(b) Minerva Mills — FR-DPSP harmony is basic structure; 100-(b) Policy think tank without fund-allocation lever

Score Interpretation

Score	Assessment
85–100	Excellent — Prelims-ready on Polity
70–84	Good — revise weak chapters identified by section-wise performance
50–69	Moderate — return to the relevant chapters for a full re-read
Below 50	Foundational gaps — restart from Chapter 1 with more careful note-making

← Chapter 19 TOC Index Chapter 21 →