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Study Guide · Chapter 62

Seventh Full-Length Mock Test

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60 MCQs — Foreign Policy, Panchayat Election Law, and Cumulative Review

Instructions

Covers Chapters 59–60 plus a substantial cumulative review layer drawing from across the entire package, designed to test long-term retention rather than just recently-read material.

Q1. Treaty-making power in India vests primarily with: (a) Parliament (b) The Union executive, under Article 73 (c) State governments (d) The Supreme Court

Q2. Which Article allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects specifically for implementing international treaties? (a) Article 249 (b) Article 250 (c) Article 253 (d) Article 262

Q3. The Indian Foreign Service is classified as a: (a) Constitutional body (b) All-India Service (c) Central Civil Service (d) Statutory tribunal

Q4. Unlike the US Senate's role, the Indian Parliament's role in treaty conclusion is: (a) Identical — mandatory prior ratification (b) Primarily oversight/implementation-focused, not prior-approval-based (c) Non-existent (d) Exercised only by the Rajya Sabha

Q5. The maximum window for holding fresh Panchayat elections after dissolution is: (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 1 year (d) 2 years

Q6. Courts have held that the timeline for Panchayat/Municipal elections under Articles 243E/243U is: (a) Merely directory, not mandatory (b) Mandatory, not merely directory (c) Entirely at the state government's discretion (d) Applicable only to Panchayats, not Municipalities

Q7. Article 243-O's bar on court interference in Panchayat electoral matters applies to: (a) All Panchayat-related questions without exception (b) Disputes integral to the ordinary election process, channeled through election petitions (c) Only disputes about reservation policy (d) Only disputes in Fifth Schedule Areas

Q8. Consider the following statements:

Article 243-O completely bars judicial review of whether Panchayat elections are held at all.
The State Election Commission's independence from state government interference has been judicially reinforced.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither Answer: (b)

Cumulative Review Section (Q9–60): Drawing from Chapters 1–58

Q9. The Preamble was amended by which single Amendment in Indian history? (a) 1st (b) 24th (c) 42nd (d) 44th

Q10. How many Fundamental Duties currently exist? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 9

Q11. The President's impeachment is governed by which Article? (a) Article 56 (b) Article 61 (c) Article 72 (d) Article 74

Q12. The Sixth Schedule applies to which four states? (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (b) Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram (c) Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Sikkim (d) All North-Eastern states

Q13. The retirement age for High Court judges is: (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 70

Q14. The CAG is appointed under which Article? (a) Article 148 (b) Article 280 (c) Article 315 (d) Article 324

Q15. NITI Aayog was established via: (a) A constitutional amendment (b) An executive resolution (c) An Act of Parliament (d) A Supreme Court order

Q16. National Emergency has been invoked how many times in Indian history? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q17. The Basic Structure Doctrine originated in which case? (a) Golaknath (b) Kesavananda Bharati (c) Minerva Mills (d) Shankari Prasad

Q19. The Eleventh Schedule lists how many subjects? (a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 29 (d) 31

Q20. Which case established the "golden triangle" of Articles 14, 19, and 21? (a) A.K. Gopalan (b) Maneka Gandhi (c) Kesavananda Bharati (d) Minerva Mills

Q21. The Election Commission's CEC can be removed: (a) At the President's pleasure (b) In the same manner as a Supreme Court judge (c) By a simple Cabinet decision (d) Only by CJI recommendation

Q22. The GST Council's decision threshold is: (a) Simple majority (b) 2/3rd weighted votes (c) 3/4th weighted votes (d) Unanimous consent

Q23. The 44th Amendment changed the National Emergency ground from "internal disturbance" to: (a) "Armed rebellion" (b) "Civil unrest" (c) "State of siege" (d) "Public disorder"

Q24. Article 300A deals with: (a) Right to Education (b) Right to Property as a legal right (c) Right to Privacy (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Q26. Which case narrowed the sedition law to cover only incitement to violence? (a) Romesh Thappar (b) Kedar Nath Singh (c) Sakal Papers (d) S.G. Vombatkere

Q27. The 50% reservation ceiling emerged from: (a) Champakam Dorairajan (b) Indra Sawhney (c) M. Nagaraj (d) Jarnail Singh

Q28. The RTI Act's expedited 48-hour timeline applies to: (a) Any government document (b) Information concerning life or liberty (c) Election-related information (d) Budget information

Q29. NDMA is chaired by: (a) The Union Home Minister (b) The Prime Minister (c) The President (d) The NDMA Vice-Chairperson

Q30. Cooperative societies fall under which Seventh Schedule List? (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary

Q31. Andhra State (1953) was India's: (a) Largest state by area (b) First linguistically organized state (c) First Union Territory (d) First bicameral state

Q32. Telangana was formed by bifurcating which state, in 2014? (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Odisha

Q33. Freedom of the press is derived from which Article? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 32

Q34. The EWS reservation is based on: (a) Caste (b) Purely economic criteria (c) Religion (d) Regional origin

Q35. The Lokpal's Selection Committee includes: (a) The Vice-President (b) The CJI or nominee judge (c) The CEC (d) The CAG

Q36. M.C. Mehta's Oleum Gas Leak case (1986) established: (a) Polluter Pays (b) Absolute Liability (c) Public Trust Doctrine (d) Precautionary Principle

Q37. India's approach to international treaties is: (a) Monist (b) Dualist (c) Hybrid without pattern (d) Automatic incorporation

Q38. Article 30 grants minorities the right to: (a) Reservation in Parliament (b) Establish/administer educational institutions (c) A separate judiciary (d) Tax exemption

Q39. The Indian Independence Act, 1947, came into effect on: (a) 18 July 1947 (b) 15 August 1947 (c) 26 January 1950 (d) 9 December 1946

Q40. Hyderabad's integration involved: (a) A plebiscite (b) Operation Polo (c) A bilateral treaty (d) UN mediation

Q41. The National Anthem was adopted on: (a) 22 July 1947 (b) 26 November 1949 (c) 24 January 1950 (d) 26 January 1950

Q42. The CAA, 2019, excludes which community from its expedited pathway? (a) Hindus (b) Sikhs (c) Muslims (d) Christians

Q43. Article 23 applies against: (a) The State only (b) Both State and private individuals (c) Private individuals only (d) Foreign nationals only

Q44. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, established which authority? (a) NCDRC only (b) CCPA (c) NITI Aayog (d) CVC

Q45. RFCTLARR requires what percentage consent for private company land acquisition? (a) 50% (b) 70% (c) 80% (d) 100%

Q46. RERA requires what percentage of buyer funds in escrow? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 100%

Q47. Article 246A relates to: (a) Income tax (b) GST concurrent legislative power (c) Customs duty (d) Corporation tax

Q48. Surcharges under Article 271 are: (a) Shared with states (b) NOT shared with states (c) Abolished under GST (d) Only applicable to states

Q49. The NIA Act was passed following: (a) The 2001 Parliament attack (b) The 2008 Mumbai attacks (c) The 2016 Uri attack (d) The 1993 Mumbai bombings

Q50. Preventive detention Advisory Board review is currently required beyond: (a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year

Q51. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014, is: (a) Fully implemented (b) Passed but not fully/effectively implemented (c) Repealed (d) Never enacted

Q52. The Official Secrets Act, 1923, is recommended for repeal by: (a) First ARC (b) Second ARC (c) Sarkaria Commission (d) Santhanam Committee

Q54. The Aadhaar Act's Section 57 was struck down because it: (a) Allowed government welfare linkage (b) Permitted private companies to demand Aadhaar authentication (c) Created the UIDAI (d) Mandated PAN-Aadhaar linkage

Q56. The Supreme Court's sanctioned strength, per the 2026 ordinance, is: (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 42

Q57. The 131st Amendment Bill, 2026, was: (a) Passed with special majority (b) Defeated in the Lok Sabha (c) Never introduced (d) Withdrawn before voting

Q58. The November 2025 Constitution Bench advisory opinion on Governor assent held that: (a) Fixed timelines can be imposed (b) No fixed timelines or deemed assent are permissible (c) Governors have no discretion (d) The President cannot review any bill

Q59. India currently has how many states and Union Territories (2026)? (a) 28 states, 8 UTs (b) 29 states, 7 UTs (c) 30 states, 6 UTs (d) 28 states, 9 UTs

Q60. The single highest-value final revision tool in this package, designed for blind self-testing, is found in: (a) Chapter 25 (Numbers) (b) Chapter 46 (Common Confusions) and Chapter 53 (Case Law Index) (c) Chapter 20 (Current Affairs) (d) Chapter 15 (Committees)

Answer Key

1-b; 2-c; 3-c; 4-b; 5-b; 6-b; 7-b; 8-b; 9-c; 10-b; 11-b; 12-a; 13-b; 14-a; 15-b; 16-b; 17-b; 18-b; 19-c; 20-b; 21-b; 22-c; 23-a; 24-b; 25-b; 26-b; 27-b; 28-b; 29-b; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-b; 34-b; 35-b; 36-b; 37-b; 38-b; 39-b; 40-b; 41-c; 42-c; 43-b; 44-b; 45-c; 46-c; 47-b; 48-b; 49-b; 50-b; 51-b; 52-b; 53-c; 54-b; 55-c; 56-c; 57-b; 58-b; 59-a; 60-b

Chapter 61 Quick Revision Sheet

Seven mock tests now span this package. Notice how many cumulative-review answers cluster around option (b) in this particular test — a reminder to always read each option on its own merits during the actual exam rather than pattern-matching on position, since real exams deliberately randomize correct-answer positions.

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