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Statement-Based, Assertion-Reason, and Matching-Type MCQs (75 Questions)

Section A: Statement-Based Questions (Q1–30)

Q1. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India can be amended only through Article 368.
  2. State reorganization under Articles 2-4 requires a special majority.
  3. Delimitation-related laws under Article 82 require only a simple majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect (some changes, like state reorganization, don't technically go through Art. 368); Statement 2 is incorrect (state reorganization needs only simple majority).

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Preamble:

  1. It was amended by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  2. It is enforceable in a court of law.
  3. It is considered part of the Constitution as per the Kesavananda Bharati judgment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the Preamble is not directly enforceable/justiciable.

Q3. Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights:

  1. Article 19 rights are available to both citizens and foreigners.
  2. Article 21 is available to all persons, including foreigners.
  3. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; Article 19 is available only to citizens.

Q4. Consider the following statements about DPSPs:

  1. They are enforceable in a court of law.
  2. Article 44 deals with the Uniform Civil Code.
  3. The DPSP concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a)

Q5. Consider the following statements about the President's ordinance-making power:

  1. It is exercised under Article 123.
  2. An ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament.
  3. An ordinance must be approved within 6 weeks of Parliament's reassembly, or it lapses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d)

Q6. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by the President.
  2. One-third of Rajya Sabha members retire every two years.
  3. The minimum age for Rajya Sabha membership is 30 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; the Rajya Sabha is permanent.

Q7. Consider the following statements about Money Bills:

  1. They can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  2. The Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill with a simple majority.
  3. The Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend, not amend.

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Governor:

  1. The Governor is elected indirectly through an electoral college.
  2. The Governor's pardoning power does not extend to death sentences.
  3. One person can be appointed Governor of two or more states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; the Governor is appointed, not elected.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Union Territories:

  1. All Union Territories have their own legislature.
  2. Delhi has special status under Article 239AA.
  3. Delhi's Assembly can legislate on Police and Public Order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Q10. Consider the following statements about the Sixth Schedule:

  1. It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  2. It provides for elected Autonomous District Councils.
  3. It applies to Nagaland as well.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; Nagaland has separate protections under Article 371A.

Q11. Consider the following statements about Panchayati Raj:

  1. The 73rd Amendment mandates a three-tier structure in all states without exception.
  2. Reservation for women in Panchayats is not less than one-third.
  3. The Gram Sabha's exact powers are determined by state legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; the intermediate tier can be skipped in states with population below 20 lakh.

Q12. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court:

  1. It has original jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and states.
  2. Its advisory opinions under Article 143 are binding on the government.
  3. It is not bound by its own previous decisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; advisory opinions are non-binding.

Q13. Consider the following statements about the Election Commission:

  1. It conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
  2. The CEC can be removed like a Supreme Court judge.
  3. Other Election Commissioners enjoy the same removal protection as the CEC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect (State Election Commission handles this); Statement 3 is incorrect (other ECs have weaker protection).

Q14. Consider the following statements about the CAG:

  1. It is appointed by the President.
  2. It can be removed like a Supreme Court judge.
  3. It has pre-expenditure sanctioning power over government spending.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the CAG's role is primarily auditing (post-facto).

Q15. Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog:

  1. It was established by an executive resolution.
  2. It has the power to allocate funds to states, similar to the Planning Commission.
  3. The Prime Minister is its ex-officio Chairperson.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q16. Consider the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law:

  1. It is contained in the Tenth Schedule.
  2. A merger requires the agreement of at least two-thirds of a legislative party's members.
  3. Disqualification decisions are made by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the Speaker/Chairman decides, not the President.

Q17. Consider the following statements about Emergency provisions:

  1. National Emergency requires approval by both Houses within one month.
  2. Financial Emergency has been invoked once, in 1991.
  3. President's Rule is subject to judicial review since 1994.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; Financial Emergency has never been invoked.

Q18. Consider the following statements about the Ninth Schedule:

  1. It was added by the First Amendment, 1951.
  2. All laws in it are permanently immune from judicial review.
  3. It was primarily meant to protect land reform legislation initially.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect, per the I.R. Coelho (2007) ruling.

Q19. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General:

  1. The AG is a member of the Council of Ministers.
  2. The AG can vote in Parliament.
  3. The AG holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Q20. Consider the following statements about the GST Council:

  1. It was established by the 101st Amendment.
  2. The Centre holds two-thirds voting weight.
  3. Decisions require a three-fourths majority of weighted votes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the Centre holds one-third, states hold two-thirds.

Q21. Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:

  1. It is constituted every 5 years.
  2. Its recommendations are legally binding.
  3. It recommends the distribution of tax revenues between Union and states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; recommendations are advisory.

Q22. Consider the following statements about judicial appointments:

  1. The Collegium system is explicitly described in Article 124.
  2. The NJAC was struck down in 2015.
  3. The Second Judges Case established the Collegium system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; the Collegium evolved through case law, not constitutional text.

Q23. Consider the following statements about NHRC:

  1. It is a constitutional body.
  2. Its Chairperson must have been CJI or a Supreme Court judge.
  3. Its recommendations are binding on state governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect (NHRC is statutory, not constitutional; recommendations are advisory).

Q24. Consider the following statements about state Legislative Councils:

  1. Six states currently have Legislative Councils.
  2. Members serve a fixed five-year term, like the Legislative Assembly.
  3. The Council can indefinitely block an ordinary bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect (Council is permanent with staggered terms; cannot indefinitely block bills).

Q25. Consider the following statements about the CVC:

  1. It was established as a statutory body in 1964.
  2. It became statutory only in 2003.
  3. It superintends the CBI's anti-corruption functions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; CVC was non-statutory from 1964 to 2003.

Q26. Consider the following statements about the NCBC:

  1. It was originally a statutory body.
  2. It became a constitutional body via the 102nd Amendment.
  3. It is governed by Article 338A.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; NCBC is governed by Article 338B (338A is for STs).

Q27. Consider the following statements about electoral bonds:

  1. The scheme was introduced in 2018.
  2. The Supreme Court upheld the scheme in 2024.
  3. The scheme allowed anonymous political donations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court struck down the scheme.

Q28. Consider the following statements about NOTA:

  1. It was introduced following the PUCL case, 2013.
  2. NOTA winning a constituency triggers a mandatory re-election in India.
  3. It maintains ballot secrecy for negative voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q29. Consider the following statements about the 42nd and 44th Amendments:

  1. The 42nd Amendment added Fundamental Duties.
  2. The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from Part III.
  3. The 44th Amendment extended the Lok Sabha's term to six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the 42nd Amendment extended the term (to 6 years); the 44th Amendment restored it to 5 years.

Q30. Consider the following statements about Article 371-series provisions:

  1. Article 371A applies to Nagaland.
  2. Article 371G applies to Mizoram and is similar in content to Article 371A.
  3. Article 370 (now abrogated) was part of the same 371-series numbering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 370 had a distinct number and was substantively different in scope, even though situated in the same Part XXI.

Section B: Assertion-Reason Questions (Q31–50)

Instructions: Each question has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Choose: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true

Q31. Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or indefinitely delay a Money Bill. Reason (R): Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has only a 14-day recommendatory role. Answer: (a)

Q32. Assertion (A): The Governor's pardoning power under Article 161 is narrower than the President's power under Article 72. Reason (R): Article 161 does not extend to death sentences or court-martial cases, while Article 72 does. Answer: (a)

Q33. Assertion (A): The Preamble cannot be enforced in a court of law. Reason (R): The Preamble is not considered part of the Constitution. Answer: (c) — A is true, but R is false (the Preamble IS part of the Constitution, per Kesavananda Bharati, but is simply non-justiciable).

Q34. Assertion (A): NITI Aayog has less direct influence over state-level fund allocation than the erstwhile Planning Commission. Reason (R): NITI Aayog was designed as a policy think tank without a fund-allocation lever, unlike the Planning Commission. Answer: (a)

Q35. Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India does not conduct Panchayat elections. Reason (R): Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission under Article 243K. Answer: (a)

Q36. Assertion (A): Presidential assent to a duly passed Constitutional Amendment Bill is mandatory. Reason (R): The 24th Amendment Act, 1971, removed the President's earlier discretion to withhold or delay assent on such bills. Answer: (a) — Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.

Q37. Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are enforceable in a court of law. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties are listed in Part IVA of the Constitution. Answer: (d) — A is false (Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable); R is true (they are indeed in Part IVA).

Q38. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 produces binding opinions. Reason (R): Article 143 allows the President to seek the Court's opinion on questions of public importance. Answer: (d) — A is false (advisory opinions are non-binding); R is true.

Q39. Assertion (A): India is described as a "quasi-federal" state. Reason (R): The Indian Constitution combines federal features (division of powers) with significant unitary features (single citizenship, residuary power with the Centre, emergency provisions). Answer: (a)

Q40. Assertion (A): The CVC has been a statutory body since its inception in 1964. Reason (R): The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, conferred statutory status on the CVC. Answer: (d) — A is false (CVC was non-statutory from 1964-2003); R is true.

Q41. Assertion (A): The basic structure doctrine limits Parliament's amending power under Article 368. Reason (R): The doctrine was established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973. Answer: (a)

Q42. Assertion (A): A Legislative Council can permanently block an ordinary bill passed by the Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): The Legislative Council is a co-equal legislative chamber with the Assembly. Answer: (d) — Both A and R are false; the Council can only delay, not permanently block, and it is NOT co-equal with the Assembly.

Q43. Assertion (A): The 73rd and 74th Amendments mandate identical minimum reservation percentages for women. Reason (R): Both amendments were passed in 1992 and mandate not less than one-third reservation for women. Answer: (a)

Q44. Assertion (A): The Right to Property is currently a Fundamental Right in India. Reason (R): The 44th Amendment retained property rights under Part III. Answer: (d) — A is false (it's now a legal right under Art. 300A); R is false too (the 44th Amendment REMOVED it from Part III).

Q45. Assertion (A): The CAG's reports are directly acted upon without further parliamentary scrutiny. Reason (R): The CAG has enforcement powers to compel corrective government action. Answer: (d) — Both A and R are false; CAG reports are examined by the PAC, and the CAG itself has no enforcement power.

Q46. Assertion (A): Financial Emergency under Article 360 has an indefinite maximum duration once approved by Parliament. Reason (R): Unlike Articles 352 and 356, Article 360 specifies no maximum time limit. Answer: (a)

Q47. Assertion (A): The Sixth Schedule and Article 371A both protect customary law. Reason (R): Both mechanisms apply to the same set of North-Eastern states. Answer: (c) — A is true (in a general sense, both protect tribal customary practices), but R is false (Sixth Schedule applies to Assam/Meghalaya/Tripura/Mizoram; Article 371A applies to Nagaland only — not the same set of states).

Q48. Assertion (A): The Election Commission's Model Code of Conduct is a legally binding statute. Reason (R): It is enforced by the ECI using its constitutional authority under Article 324 and other available legal powers, without being a standalone parliamentary Act. Answer: (d) — A is false (MCC is not itself a standalone statute); R is true.

Q49. Assertion (A): The Delimitation Commission's orders can be challenged in the Supreme Court. Reason (R): The Delimitation Commission is not a constitutional body. Answer: (d) — A is false (Delimitation Commission orders explicitly cannot be challenged in any court); the reasoning in R is also not the actual basis for this rule.

Q50. Assertion (A): The 106th Amendment's women's reservation provision has been operational since 2023. Reason (R): Its implementation is linked to a delimitation exercise that has not yet been completed. Answer: (d) — A is false (it remains "enacted but dormant," not yet operational); R is true and explains why A is false.

Section C: Matching-Type Questions (Q51–75)

Q51. Match the List I (Body) with List II (Establishing Instrument): List I: 1. NHRC 2. NITI Aayog 3. Election Commission 4. Lokpal List II: A. Article 324 B. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 C. Executive Resolution D. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A Answer: (a)

Q52. Match the List I (Committee) with List II (Focus Area): List I: 1. Sarkaria Commission 2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 3. Santhanam Committee 4. Mandal Commission List II: A. Anti-corruption B. Centre-state relations C. OBC reservation D. Panchayati Raj structure (a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Answer: (a)

Q53. Match the List I (Schedule) with List II (Content): List I: 1. Fifth Schedule 2. Eighth Schedule 3. Ninth Schedule 4. Tenth Schedule List II: A. Official languages B. Anti-Defection Law C. Scheduled Areas administration D. Laws immune from certain judicial review (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C Answer: (a)

Q54. Match the List I (Case) with List II (Holding): List I: 1. Kesavananda Bharati 2. Maneka Gandhi 3. S.R. Bommai 4. Indra Sawhney List II: A. Golden triangle (Arts. 14/19/21) B. Basic structure doctrine C. Floor test for Article 356 D. 50% reservation cap (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A Answer: (a)

Q55. Match the List I (Amendment) with List II (Key Feature): List I: 1. 42nd Amendment 2. 44th Amendment 3. 73rd Amendment 4. 101st Amendment List II: A. GST introduction B. Panchayati Raj constitutional status C. Fundamental Duties added D. Right to Property removed from Part III (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C Answer: (a)

Q56. Match the List I (Article) with List II (Subject): List I: 1. Article 32 2. Article 72 3. Article 76 4. Article 280 List II: A. Attorney General B. Right to Constitutional Remedies C. Finance Commission D. President's pardoning power (a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Answer: (a)

Q57. Match the List I (Writ) with List II (Purpose): List I: 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Certiorari 4. Quo Warranto List II: A. Quash an order beyond jurisdiction B. Question legality of holding public office C. Command performance of a legal duty D. Test legality of detention (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Answer: (a)

Q58. Match the List I (Body) with List II (Founding Year): List I: 1. NHRC 2. NITI Aayog 3. CVC (statutory) 4. Lokpal (operational basis) List II: A. 2003 B. 1993 C. 2015 D. 2013 (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B Answer: (a)

Q59. Match the List I (Article 371-series) with List II (State): List I: 1. 371A 2. 371F 3. 371G 4. 371J List II: A. Sikkim B. Karnataka C. Nagaland D. Mizoram (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C Answer: (a)

Q60. Match the List I (Emergency Type) with List II (Article): List I: 1. National Emergency 2. President's Rule 3. Financial Emergency List II: A. Article 360 B. Article 356 C. Article 352 (a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B Answer: (a)

Q61. Match the List I (Committee) with List II (Chairman/Head): List I: 1. Drafting Committee 2. Second ARC 3. NCRWC 4. First Backward Classes Commission List II: A. Kaka Kalelkar B. M.N. Venkatachaliah C. Veerappa Moily D. B.R. Ambedkar (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Answer: (a)

Q62. Match the List I (Feature) with List II (Source Constitution): List I: 1. DPSP 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Concurrent List 4. Judicial Review List II: A. USSR B. USA C. Ireland D. Australia (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C Answer: (a)

Q63. Match the List I (Body) with List II (Number of Members, where fixed): List I: 1. Finance Commission (excl. Chairman) 2. CVC (excl. Chairman, max) 3. UPSC composition determined by List II: A. President B. 4 members C. 2 Vigilance Commissioners (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q64. Match the List I (Term) with List II (Meaning): List I: 1. Suspensive Veto 2. Pocket Veto 3. Absolute Veto List II: A. Withholding assent entirely B. Returning for reconsideration, must assent if repassed C. Taking no action, since no time limit exists (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q65. Match the List I (Schedule) with List II (Number of Subjects/Items, where applicable): List I: 1. Eleventh Schedule 2. Twelfth Schedule 3. Eighth Schedule List II: A. 22 languages B. 29 subjects C. 18 subjects (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q66. Match the List I (Judges Case) with List II (Year/Key Outcome): List I: 1. First Judges Case 2. Second Judges Case 3. Fourth Judges Case List II: A. 2015, NJAC struck down B. 1981, executive primacy C. 1993, Collegium established (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q67. Match the List I (Term) with List II (Correct Association): List I: 1. Zero Hour 2. Question Hour 3. Calling Attention Motion List II: A. Formal part of Rules of Procedure B. Convention, not formal rule, follows Question Hour C. MP calls minister's attention to urgent matter, also a convention (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Answer: (a)

Q68. Match the List I (State) with List II (Special Feature): List I: 1. Goa 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. Sikkim List II: A. Minimum 30-member Assembly (Art. 371I) B. Post-merger protections (Art. 371F) C. Employment/education equity (Art. 371D) (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B (b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q69. Match the List I (Concept) with List II (Correct Description): List I: 1. Residuary Power 2. Concurrent List Conflict 3. Cooperative Federalism List II: A. Central law prevails unless state law has Presidential assent B. Vests with Parliament in India C. GST Council as an institutional example (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Answer: (a)

Q70. Match the List I (Body) with List II (Chairperson/Head, ex-officio where applicable): List I: 1. NITI Aayog Governing Council 2. Rajya Sabha 3. GST Council List II: A. Vice-President B. Prime Minister C. Union Finance Minister (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Answer: (a)

Q71. Match the List I (Reservation-Related Amendment) with List II (Key Feature): List I: 1. 77th Amendment 2. 103rd Amendment 3. 102nd Amendment List II: A. EWS reservation B. Reservation in promotion for SC/ST C. NCBC constitutional status (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Answer: (a)

Q72. Match the List I (Writ Jurisdiction Basis) with List II (Court): List I: 1. Article 32 2. Article 226 List II: A. High Court, broader ("any other purpose") B. Supreme Court, itself a Fundamental Right (a) 1-B, 2-A (b) 1-A, 2-B Answer: (a)

Q73. Match the List I (Term) with List II (Definition): List I: 1. Prorogation 2. Dissolution 3. Adjournment List II: A. Temporary suspension of a sitting, session continues B. Formal ending of a session without ending the House C. Ending of the House itself, fresh elections needed (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Answer: (a)

Q74. Match the List I (Committee Type) with List II (House Representation): List I: 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings List II: A. Lok Sabha only B. Both Houses (15 LS + 7 RS) C. Both Houses (15 LS + 7 RS, same pattern as PAC) (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Answer: (a)

Q75. Match the List I (Recent Development, 2024-2026) with List II (Correct Fact): List I: 1. Electoral Bonds 2. SC Judge Strength 3. 131st Amendment Bill List II: A. Struck down, Feb 2024 B. Increased to 38 via 2026 ordinance C. Defeated in Lok Sabha, April 2026 (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B Answer: (a)

Chapter 24 Quick Revision Sheet

This chapter deliberately varies question format (statement-based, assertion-reason, matching) rather than content, since UPSC Prelims itself uses this variety — being comfortable with all three formats, not just simple single-best-answer MCQs, is itself an exam-readiness skill.

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