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Study Guide · Chapter 44

Third Full-Length Mock Test

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75 More Original MCQs, Focused on Chapters 26–42's Specialized Topics

Instructions

Unlike Chapters 19 and 31 (which covered the full syllabus breadth), this mock test focuses specifically on the specialized deep-dive chapters (26–42) — public policy, budget process, parliamentary procedure, the Governor's assent saga, RTI, disaster management, cooperative societies, state reorganization, press freedom/sedition, reservation, Lokpal, environmental governance, human rights, and minority rights. Use this to test the "harder," more specialized material that a purely core-syllabus-focused revision might miss.

Q1. The "Multiple Streams Framework" explains policy change through the convergence of: (a) Problem, Policy, Politics streams (b) Union, State, Local streams (c) Legislative, Executive, Judicial streams (d) Formulation, Legitimation, Evaluation streams

Q2. Direct Benefit Transfer is best classified as which type of policy instrument? (a) Regulatory (b) Fiscal/Economic (c) Direct Provision (d) Information/Nudge

Q3. Which fund is at the President's disposal for unforeseen expenditure? (a) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund (c) Public Account (d) National Disaster Response Fund

Q4. Only which House of Parliament votes on Demands for Grants? (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha (c) Both equally (d) Neither

Q5. An "Excess Grant" requires examination by which committee before Parliamentary approval? (a) Estimates Committee (b) Public Accounts Committee (c) Business Advisory Committee (d) Committee on Public Undertakings

Q6. A Financial Bill (Type II) requires Presidential recommendation for: (a) Introduction only (b) Consideration/passage, not introduction (c) Neither introduction nor consideration (d) Both introduction and consideration equally

Q7. How many times has a joint sitting of Parliament been convened? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q8. Parliamentary freedom from arrest applies to: (a) Both civil and criminal cases (b) Civil cases only (c) Criminal cases only (d) Neither

Q9. In the 2025 Tamil Nadu Governor case saga, which power did the Supreme Court initially invoke (April 2025) to deem certain bills assented to? (a) Article 32 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 226

Q10. The Presidential Reference on Governor assent timelines was made under: (a) Article 141 (b) Article 143 (c) Article 200 (d) Article 356

Q11. The November 2025 Constitution Bench advisory opinion held that: (a) Fixed timelines can be judicially imposed on Governors (b) No fixed timelines can be judicially imposed, and no "deemed assent" is permissible (c) Governors have no discretion whatsoever (d) The President cannot review any Governor-reserved bill

Q12. Under the RTI Act, the standard response timeline is: (a) 15 days (b) 30 days (c) 45 days (d) 60 days

Q13. The RTI Act's 48-hour expedited timeline applies to: (a) Any government contract information (b) Information concerning life or liberty (c) Budget-related information (d) Election-related information

Q14. The maximum penalty an Information Commission can impose on a non-compliant PIO is: (a) ₹10,000 (b) ₹25,000 (c) ₹50,000 (d) ₹1,00,000

Q15. Which case held the CJI's office to be a "public authority" under the RTI Act? (a) State of U.P. v. Raj Narain (b) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (c) CPIO, SC of India v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (d) Anoop Baranwal case

Q16. The National Disaster Management Authority is chaired by: (a) The Union Home Minister (b) The Prime Minister (c) The President (d) The NDMA Vice-Chairperson

Q17. The District Disaster Management Authority is typically chaired by: (a) The Chief Minister (b) The District Collector/Magistrate (c) The Chief Secretary (d) The Union Home Secretary

Q18. The Disaster Management Act, 2005, was enacted following: (a) The 2001 Gujarat earthquake (b) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami (c) The 2013 Uttarakhand floods (d) The 2018 Kerala floods

Q19. The 97th Constitutional Amendment, dealing with cooperative societies, inserted which Part? (a) Part IX (b) Part IXA (c) Part IXB (d) Part XIVA

Q20. Under Article 243ZL, the maximum period for supersession of a cooperative society's board is: (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 1 year (d) 2 years

Q21. "Cooperative societies" as a legislative subject falls under: (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary power

Q22. Andhra State (1953) is significant because it was: (a) India's largest state by area at the time (b) India's first linguistically organized state (c) The first Union Territory (d) The first state with a Legislative Council

Q23. The States Reorganisation Commission (1953) was chaired by: (a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Fazl Ali (c) Balwant Rai Mehta (d) K.M. Munshi

Q24. Jharkhand was carved out of which state, in 2000? (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Odisha (d) Uttar Pradesh

Q25. Telangana was formed by bifurcating which state, in 2014? (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu

Q26. The 2019 Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act resulted in: (a) A new 29th state (b) Two Union Territories, reducing the state count (c) No change in status (d) A Sixth Schedule area designation

Q27. As of 2026, India has how many states and Union Territories? (a) 29 states, 7 UTs (b) 28 states, 8 UTs (c) 28 states, 9 UTs (d) 30 states, 6 UTs

Q28. Freedom of the press in India is: (a) A separately named Fundamental Right (b) Derived from Article 19(1)(a) (c) Derived from Article 21 exclusively (d) Not constitutionally protected at all

Q29. In Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962), the Supreme Court narrowed sedition to cover only: (a) Any criticism of the government (b) Speech inciting violence or public disorder (c) Foreign media reports (d) Social media posts exclusively

Q30. In 2022, the Supreme Court's direction regarding Section 124A (sedition) resulted in: (a) The provision being struck down (b) Effective suspension of its operation pending reconsideration (c) No change (d) Immediate repeal by Parliament

Q31. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita's Section 152 deals with: (a) Defamation (b) Acts endangering sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India (c) Contempt of court (d) Electoral offences

Q33. The EWS reservation category is based on: (a) Caste (b) Religion (c) Purely economic criteria (d) Regional origin

Q34. The "creamy layer" concept was originally introduced for which category? (a) SC (b) ST (c) OBC (d) EWS

Q35. Which case held that SC/STs need not separately prove backwardness for promotion-reservation, though creamy layer principles still apply? (a) M. Nagaraj (b) Jarnail Singh (c) Indra Sawhney (d) Champakam Dorairajan

Q36. The Rohini Commission examines: (a) EWS criteria (b) Sub-categorization within OBCs (c) Judicial appointments (d) Electoral reforms

Q37. Article 16(4B), on carry-forward of unfilled promotion reservation vacancies, was inserted by: (a) 77th Amendment (b) 81st Amendment (c) 103rd Amendment (d) 105th Amendment

Q39. The Lokpal's jurisdiction over the Prime Minister: (a) Does not exist under any circumstances (b) Exists, subject to specific subject-matter exclusions and procedural safeguards (c) Is unrestricted (d) Requires a constitutional amendment first

Q40. Lokayuktas, unlike the Lokpal, are: (a) Structurally uniform across all states (b) Established under separate, varying state legislation (c) Non-existent in India (d) Part of the central Lokpal itself

Q41. The "Absolute Liability" principle in Indian environmental law emerged from: (a) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (b) The Oleum Gas Leak case (c) T.N. Godavarman case (d) Vishaka case

Q42. The Public Trust Doctrine was imported into Indian jurisprudence via: (a) The Oleum Gas Leak case (b) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (c) T.N. Godavarman case (d) Olga Tellis case

Q44. India follows which approach to international treaty law? (a) Monist (b) Dualist (c) Hybrid without any pattern (d) Automatic incorporation

Q45. The Vishaka Guidelines drew upon which international instrument? (a) UDHR (b) ICCPR (c) CEDAW (d) CRC

Q46. The NHRC was established in compliance with: (a) UDHR directly (b) The Paris Principles (c) ICESCR (d) CRPD

Q47. Article 30 of the Constitution grants minorities the right to: (a) Reservation in Parliament (b) Establish and administer educational institutions (c) A separate judiciary (d) Exemption from all taxation

Q48. Which community was added to India's notified minority list most recently (2014)? (a) Sikhs (b) Buddhists (c) Jains (d) Parsis

Q49. T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002) primarily addressed: (a) Reservation policy (b) State regulation of minority/non-minority educational institutions (c) Emergency provisions (d) Federal fiscal relations

Q50. The National Commission for Minorities is: (a) A constitutional body (b) A statutory body (c) An extra-constitutional/executive body (d) A judicial body

Q51. Article 350A directs the State to provide instruction facilities in: (a) English (b) Hindi (c) The mother tongue of linguistic minority children (d) Sanskrit

Q52. Which policy-making model describes policy as changing only marginally, or "muddling through"? (a) Rational Model (b) Incremental Model (c) Garbage Can Model (d) Multiple Streams Framework

Q53. Centrally Sponsored Schemes differ from Central Sector Schemes in that: (a) The former involve state cost-sharing and implementation (b) The former are entirely Centre-funded (c) There is no difference (d) The latter require state legislative approval

Q54. A "Vote of Credit" is used for: (a) Routine annual expenditure (b) An unexpected demand where usual budgetary detail cannot be specified (c) Regularizing already-incurred excess expenditure (d) New services fundable via reallocation

Q55. Which stage of an ordinary bill involves clause-by-clause consideration? (a) First Reading (b) Second Reading (c) Third Reading (d) Presidential Assent stage

Q56. Joint sitting is presided over by: (a) The Vice-President (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The President

Q57. The Governor's discretion in bill-assent matters, per the November 2025 advisory opinion, was: (a) Eliminated entirely (b) Affirmed as genuine, while rejecting judicially-fixed timelines (c) Transferred to the President exclusively (d) Made subject to a mandatory 6-week deadline

Q58. RTI applications can be filed by: (a) Any person globally (b) Indian citizens only (c) Registered companies only (d) Government employees only

Q59. The National Disaster Response Force is: (a) A financing mechanism only (b) A specialized personnel force for disaster response (c) A judicial body (d) A parliamentary committee

Q60. Cooperative society board elections, per Article 243ZK, must be conducted: (a) Whenever the state government chooses (b) Before the expiry of the board's term, by an independent authority (c) Only after Union government approval (d) Never, as boards are permanent

Q61. Uttarakhand was formed in 2000, carved from: (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh

Q62. Sedition-type provisions under BNS Section 152 prescribe punishment of: (a) Fine only (b) Up to life imprisonment or up to 7 years, with fine (c) Community service only (d) No punishment, only a warning

Q63. Total illustrative central reservation (SC+ST+OBC+EWS) can reach approximately: (a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 59.5% (d) 75%

Q64. The Lokpal Selection Committee includes: (a) The Vice-President (b) The Chief Justice of India or nominee judge (c) The Chief Election Commissioner (d) The CAG

Q65. Which environmental principle places the burden of proving "no harm" on the party undertaking a potentially harmful activity? (a) Polluter Pays (b) Precautionary Principle (c) Public Trust Doctrine (d) Absolute Liability

Q67. Article 29 of the Constitution protects: (a) Only religious minorities (b) Any section of citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture (c) Only linguistic minorities (d) Only Scheduled Tribes

Q68. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided for under: (a) Article 29 (b) Article 30 (c) Article 350B (d) Article 351

Q69. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006) required states to collect data on: (a) Only population figures (b) Backwardness, inadequate representation, and administrative efficiency impact before promotion-reservation (c) Only economic criteria (d) Only religious demographics

Q70. The 2011 India Against Corruption movement most directly led to the passage of: (a) The RTI Act (b) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (c) The CVC Act (d) The NHRC Act

Q71. Which fund does NOT require parliamentary appropriation for withdrawal, since the government acts merely as custodian? (a) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund (c) Public Account (d) National Disaster Response Fund

Q73. Which of the following is an example of "continuing mandamus" in Indian judicial practice? (a) Kesavananda Bharati case (b) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad case (c) Minerva Mills case (d) S.R. Bommai case

Q74. The maximum number of directors on a cooperative society's board, per Article 243ZJ, is: (a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30

Q75. Which of the following best captures the relationship between Article 48A and the enforceable right to environment? (a) Article 48A is itself directly enforceable (b) The enforceable right flows from judicial interpretation of Article 21, informed by Article 48A's aspiration (c) There is no enforceable right to environment in India (d) Article 48A was repealed

Answer Key

1-a; 2-b; 3-b; 4-b; 5-b; 6-b; 7-b; 8-b; 9-c; 10-b; 11-b; 12-b; 13-b; 14-b; 15-c; 16-b; 17-b; 18-b; 19-c; 20-b; 21-b; 22-b; 23-b; 24-b; 25-b; 26-b; 27-b; 28-b; 29-b; 30-b; 31-b; 32-c; 33-c; 34-c; 35-b; 36-b; 37-b; 38-c; 39-b; 40-b; 41-b; 42-b; 43-c; 44-b; 45-c; 46-b; 47-b; 48-c; 49-b; 50-b; 51-c; 52-b; 53-a; 54-b; 55-b; 56-b; 57-b; 58-b; 59-b; 60-b; 61-b; 62-b; 63-c; 64-b; 65-b; 66-b; 67-b; 68-c; 69-b; 70-b; 71-c; 72-c; 73-b; 74-b; 75-b

Chapter 43 Quick Revision Sheet

This third mock test, focused exclusively on Chapters 26–42, should reveal whether your grasp of the "specialized/deep-dive" material is as solid as your grasp of the core 1–11 chapters. If your score here is notably lower than on Chapters 19/31's broader tests, prioritize re-reading Chapters 26–42 before exam day, since these chapters cover material that is genuinely less commonly found in standard study guides and therefore carries higher differentiation value in a competitive exam.

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