Tenth Full-Length Mock Test

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50 MCQs Covering Chapters 67–70 Plus Comprehensive Review

Q1. Which case established the right to speedy trial as part of Article 21? (a) Sunil Batra case (b) Hussainara Khatoon case (c) D.K. Basu case (d) Rudul Sah case

Q2. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983) is significant for establishing: (a) Free legal aid (b) Compensatory jurisprudence under Article 32 (c) Speedy trial rights (d) Anti-handcuffing guidelines

Q3. D.K. Basu guidelines primarily address: (a) Reservation policy (b) Arrest and detention procedures (c) Environmental protection (d) Electoral reforms

Q4. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration held that handcuffing of undertrials: (a) Is always permitted (b) Requires recorded reasons and genuine escape/violence risk (c) Is completely banned in all circumstances (d) Applies only to women

Q5. The RBI is: (a) A constitutional body (b) A statutory body (c) An extra-constitutional body (d) A judicial tribunal

Q6. The Monetary Policy Committee comprises: (a) 6 RBI members only (b) 3 RBI + 3 government-nominated external members (c) 4 RBI + 2 external (d) All government nominees

Q7. The Competition Act, 2002, replaced: (a) SEBI Act (b) MRTP Act, 1969 (c) Companies Act (d) FEMA

Q9. Section 66A of the IT Act was struck down in which case? (a) Puttaswamy case (b) Shreya Singhal case (c) Anuradha Bhasin case (d) Navtej Johar case

Q10. Section 66A was struck down primarily for: (a) Privacy violation (b) Vagueness/overbreadth violating Article 19(1)(a) (c) Federalism violation (d) Violating Article 14 only

Q11. The IT Rules, 2021, are: (a) A standalone Act (b) Delegated legislation under the IT Act (c) A constitutional amendment (d) A Supreme Court order

Q12. "Public Health" falls under which Seventh Schedule List? (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary

Q13. Which case held that emergency medical treatment obligations take precedence over procedural formalities? (a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity (b) Parmanand Katara case (c) CERC case (d) Olga Tellis case

Q14. Which state enacted a dedicated Right to Health Act in 2023? (a) Kerala (b) Rajasthan (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Punjab

Q15. Ayushman Bharat/PM-JAY is: (a) A justiciable right (b) A policy scheme (c) A constitutional amendment (d) A DPSP directly enforceable

Comprehensive Cumulative Review (Q16–50)

Q16. The Constitution was enforced on: (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 24 January 1950

Q17. DPSP were borrowed from: (a) USA (b) UK (c) Ireland (d) Canada

Q18. The Basic Structure Doctrine emerged from: (a) Golaknath (b) Kesavananda Bharati (c) Minerva Mills (d) Shankari Prasad

Q19. Article 32 is: (a) Not enforceable (b) Itself a Fundamental Right (c) A DPSP (d) A Fundamental Duty

Q20. The Sixth Schedule applies to: (a) 3 states (b) 4 states (c) 5 states (d) 6 states

Q21. Panchayati Raj's Eleventh Schedule lists: (a) 18 subjects (b) 22 subjects (c) 29 subjects (d) 31 subjects

Q22. SC judges retire at: (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 70

Q23. NITI Aayog was created via: (a) Constitutional amendment (b) Executive resolution (c) Act of Parliament (d) Supreme Court order

Q24. National Emergency has been invoked: (a) 2 times (b) 3 times (c) 4 times (d) 5 times

Q26. The "golden triangle" links Articles: (a) 12,13,14 (b) 14,19,21 (c) 32,226,141 (d) 352,356,360

Q27. CEC removal is like: (a) President's pleasure (b) A Supreme Court judge (c) Cabinet decision (d) CJI recommendation alone

Q28. GST Council decisions require: (a) Simple majority (b) 2/3rd weighted votes (c) 3/4th weighted votes (d) Unanimity

Q29. The 44th Amendment changed National Emergency grounds to: (a) Armed rebellion (b) Civil unrest (c) State of siege (d) Public disorder

Q30. Article 300A deals with: (a) Education (b) Property (legal right) (c) Privacy (d) Constitutional remedies

Q32. Kedar Nath Singh narrowed sedition to: (a) Any criticism (b) Incitement to violence (c) Foreign media (d) Social media only

Q33. The 50% reservation ceiling emerged from: (a) Champakam Dorairajan (b) Indra Sawhney (c) Nagaraj (d) Jarnail Singh

Q34. RTI's 48-hour timeline applies to: (a) Any document (b) Life/liberty information (c) Elections (d) Budget

Q35. NDMA is chaired by: (a) Home Minister (b) PM (c) President (d) NDMA VC

Q36. Cooperative societies fall under: (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary

Q38. Press freedom derives from: (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 32

Q39. OBC reservation cap: (a) 15% (b) 27% (c) 33% (d) 50%

Q40. Oleum Gas Leak case established: (a) Polluter Pays (b) Absolute Liability (c) Precautionary Principle (d) Public Trust Doctrine

Q41. India follows which treaty approach: (a) Monist (b) Dualist (c) Neither (d) Automatic

Q42. Article 30 protects: (a) Majority institutions (b) Minority educational institutions (c) Government schools (d) Universities only

Q43. Operation Polo relates to: (a) Junagadh (b) Hyderabad (c) Kashmir (d) Goa

Q44. CAA, 2019, excludes: (a) Hindus (b) Sikhs (c) Muslims (d) Buddhists

Q45. Article 23 applies against: (a) State only (b) State and private individuals (c) Private only (d) Foreigners only

Q46. RFCTLARR requires consent for PPP projects: (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%

Q47. RERA escrow requirement: (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 100%

Q48. Article 246A relates to: (a) Income tax (b) GST (c) Customs (d) Corporation tax

Q50. No judge has ever been removed via impeachment — true or false, and which case came closest? (a) True; V. Ramaswami came closest (Inquiry Committee found him guilty but motion failed) (b) False; several judges have been removed (c) True; no removal motion has ever been filed (d) False; only one judge has ever faced a motion

Answer Key

1-b; 2-b; 3-b; 4-b; 5-b; 6-b; 7-b; 8-b; 9-b; 10-b; 11-b; 12-b; 13-b; 14-b; 15-b; 16-b; 17-c; 18-b; 19-b; 20-b; 21-c; 22-c; 23-b; 24-b; 25-b; 26-b; 27-b; 28-c; 29-a; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-b; 34-b; 35-b; 36-b; 37-b; 38-b; 39-b; 40-b; 41-b; 42-b; 43-b; 44-c; 45-b; 46-c; 47-c; 48-b; 49-b; 50-a

Chapter 71 Quick Revision Sheet

Ten mock tests, spanning several hundred original MCQs, now form a comprehensive assessment suite across this entire package. This is an appropriate point to shift emphasis: subsequent chapters return to substantive content rather than further mock-test volume, since the practice-question density is now genuinely comprehensive.

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