Second Full-Length Mock Test
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100 More Original MCQs — Different Questions, Same Comprehensive Coverage
Instructions
This is a second, independent 100-question mock test, covering the same syllabus breadth as Chapter 19 but with entirely different questions — use it either as a follow-up assessment after revision, or split the two mock tests across two separate practice sessions for spaced repetition.
Section A: Historical Background, Salient Features, Schedules (Q1–20)
Q1. The Charter Act of 1833 made which city's Governor-General the Governor-General of India? (a) Madras (b) Bombay (c) Bengal (d) Delhi
Q2. The Indian Councils Act, 1892, primarily expanded which function of legislative councils? (a) Judicial review power (b) Budget discussion and questioning of the executive (c) Power to remove the Viceroy (d) Power to declare war
Q3. Which Committee of the Constituent Assembly did Dr. Rajendra Prasad chair, besides being Assembly President? (a) Union Powers Committee (b) Steering Committee (c) Drafting Committee (d) States Committee
Q4. The phrase "Magna Carta of India" is most commonly used to describe: (a) The Preamble (b) Part III (Fundamental Rights) (c) Part IV (DPSP) (d) The Ninth Schedule
Q5. Which of the following is NOT one of the original six Fundamental Rights (post-44th Amendment)? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Property (c) Right to Freedom of Religion (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q6. The 97th Amendment, 2011, added "cooperative societies" as a right under which Article? (a) Article 19(1)(c) (b) Article 21 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29
Q7. Which Schedule was NOT part of the original 1950 Constitution? (a) Fifth Schedule (b) Sixth Schedule (c) Ninth Schedule (d) Seventh Schedule
Q8. The Twelfth Schedule was inserted by which Amendment? (a) 42nd (b) 73rd (c) 74th (d) 97th
Q9. The term "Republic" in the Preamble signifies: (a) An elected, non-hereditary Head of State (b) A single-party system (c) A unitary form of government (d) The absence of a written constitution
Q10. Which of the following DPSP articles was added by the 42nd Amendment? (a) Article 39 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 48A
Q11. The "Objectives Resolution" was later revised and adopted, in modified form, as the: (a) Government of India Act (b) Preamble (c) Ninth Schedule (d) Directive Principles
Q12. Which of the following is a Liberal-Intellectual DPSP? (a) Article 40 (b) Article 43 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 46
Q13. The Fundamental Duty relating to protection of the environment is found in which clause of Article 51A? (a) (e) (b) (g) (c) (h) (d) (k)
Q14. Who among the following was NOT part of the original Drafting Committee? (a) T.T. Krishnamachari (b) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Q15. The concept of "single citizenship" in India was borrowed from: (a) United States (b) United Kingdom (c) Canada (d) Ireland
Q16. Which case first held that Parliament cannot amend Part III at all? (a) Shankari Prasad (b) Golaknath (c) Kesavananda Bharati (d) Minerva Mills
Q17. The Eighth Schedule was expanded to include Sindhi by which Amendment? (a) 8th (b) 21st (c) 71st (d) 92nd
Q18. Article 15(5), enabling reservation in private educational institutions, was added by: (a) 86th Amendment (b) 93rd Amendment (c) 97th Amendment (d) 103rd Amendment
Q19. The doctrine that Fundamental Rights and DPSP must be harmoniously balanced was laid down in: (a) Kesavananda Bharati (b) Minerva Mills (c) Golaknath (d) Champakam Dorairajan
Q20. Which of the following correctly lists the chronological order of key milestone Acts? (a) 1909, 1919, 1935, 1858 (b) 1858, 1909, 1919, 1935 (c) 1919, 1858, 1935, 1909 (d) 1935, 1919, 1909, 1858
Section B: Union & State Government (Q21–40)
Q21. The electoral college for the President's election excludes: (a) Elected MLAs of Delhi (b) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha (c) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha (d) Elected members of the Lok Sabha
Q22. A President's impeachment charge, once initiated in one House, is investigated by: (a) The Supreme Court (b) The other House (c) The Election Commission (d) A joint parliamentary committee
Q23. The Vice-President's ordinary function, apart from succession contingencies, is to: (a) Preside over the Lok Sabha (b) Preside over the Rajya Sabha as ex-officio Chairman (c) Head the Union Council of Ministers (d) Act as Chief Justice's deputy
Q24. Under Article 74(2), courts are barred from inquiring into: (a) The validity of a law (b) What advice was tendered by ministers to the President (c) The Governor's discretionary powers (d) The President's ordinance-making power
Q25. Which of the following categories of ministers heads a ministry independently but does not usually attend Cabinet meetings unless invited? (a) Cabinet Minister (b) Minister of State (Independent Charge) (c) Deputy Minister (d) Parliamentary Secretary
Q26. The Rajya Sabha's unique power under Article 249 relates to: (a) Removing judges (b) Authorizing Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest (c) Approving the budget (d) Electing the Vice-President
Q27. Which Article empowers Parliament to create new All-India Services? (a) Article 309 (b) Article 311 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 315
Q28. The "doctrine of pleasure" for civil servants is found in: (a) Article 309 (b) Article 310 (c) Article 311 (d) Article 312
Q29. Consider the following about the Governor's ordinance power (Article 213):
- It can be exercised only when the state legislature is not in session.
- Certain categories of ordinances require prior Presidential instructions. Which is correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q30. The maximum number of ministers in a large state's Council of Ministers is capped at: (a) 10% of Assembly strength (b) 15% of Assembly strength (c) 20% of Assembly strength (d) 25% of Assembly strength
Q31. Which of the following is TRUE about Legislative Councils? (a) They exist in a majority of Indian states (b) 1/12th of members are elected by registered graduates (c) They have equal power with the Assembly on Money Bills (d) They are dissolvable by the Governor at will, like the Assembly
Q32. A Cut Motion used to express opposition to the underlying policy of a demand for grants is called a: (a) Economy Cut (b) Policy Cut (c) Token Cut (d) Regular Cut
Q33. Which of the following is an example of an "effective majority"? (a) Passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill (b) Removing the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha (c) Passing an ordinary bill (d) Declaring a National Emergency
Q34. Under Article 165, who is appointed as the chief legal advisor to a state government? (a) The Chief Justice of the state High Court (b) The Advocate General (c) The Attorney General (d) The Solicitor General
Q35. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission's report on "Ethics in Governance" was submitted under the chairmanship of: (a) M.N. Venkatachaliah (b) Veerappa Moily (c) K. Hanumanthaiya (d) Morarji Desai
Q36. Which of the following statements about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is correct? (a) The Speaker is appointed by the President (b) The Speaker's decision on a Money Bill is final and cannot be questioned in court (c) The Speaker cannot vote at all (d) The Speaker is automatically removed when the Lok Sabha is dissolved Note: consider only the option matching established constitutional practice.
Q37. The office of Deputy Prime Minister: (a) Is constitutionally mandated (b) Is not mentioned in the Constitution and exists only as a political/ceremonial designation (c) Is elected separately from the PM (d) Automatically succeeds the PM upon resignation
Q38. Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Committees:
- DRSCs were introduced in 1993.
- There are currently 24 DRSCs covering all ministries. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q39. A Governor's report recommending President's Rule is submitted to: (a) The Chief Minister (b) The President (c) The Supreme Court (d) The Election Commission
Q40. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages for an ordinary bill? (a) Third Reading → First Reading → Second Reading (b) First Reading → Second Reading → Third Reading (c) Second Reading → First Reading → Third Reading (d) First Reading → Third Reading → Second Reading
Section C: Judiciary, Local Government, UTs (Q41–60)
Q41. The power of "superintendence" over subordinate courts and tribunals within a state is given to the High Court under: (a) Article 226 (b) Article 227 (c) Article 235 (d) Article 141
Q42. Which case held that tribunals cannot wholly exclude the jurisdiction of High Courts/Supreme Court? (a) Kesavananda Bharati (b) L. Chandra Kumar (c) S.R. Bommai (d) Minerva Mills
Q43. The qualifications for a Supreme Court judge include being a High Court judge for at least: (a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 7 years (d) 10 years
Q44. A "distinguished jurist" can be appointed as a Supreme Court judge under which clause of Article 124(3)? (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) None — this route doesn't exist
Q45. Article 233 relates to: (a) High Court judges' appointment (b) District Judges' appointment (c) Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction (d) State Public Service Commission
Q46. PESA, 1996, is most closely associated with: (a) Sixth Schedule empowerment (b) Fifth Schedule Gram Sabha empowerment (c) Urban local body reform (d) Judicial reform
Q47. The Metropolitan Planning Committee is constituted for areas with a population of at least: (a) 5 lakh (b) 10 lakh (c) 15 lakh (d) 20 lakh
Q48. Article 243ZD deals with: (a) State Election Commission (b) District Planning Committee (c) Metropolitan Planning Committee (d) State Finance Commission
Q49. Which of the following Union Territories was formed via the merger of two previously separate UTs? (a) Chandigarh (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (c) Lakshadweep (d) Puducherry
Q50. Article 244A provides for: (a) A separate state for all Sixth Schedule areas (b) Formation of an autonomous state for certain tribal areas in Assam (c) UT administration generally (d) Delhi's special status
Q51. Which of the following bodies has BOTH judicial and legislative powers over specified subjects? (a) Tribes Advisory Council (b) Autonomous District Council (Sixth Schedule) (c) District Planning Committee (d) State Election Commission
Q52. A Gram Nyayalaya's presiding officer, the Nyayadhikari, is appointed by: (a) The Governor directly (b) The state government, in consultation with the High Court (c) The President (d) The District Collector
Q53. Which Article empowers the President to establish a common High Court for two or more states? (a) Article 214 (b) Article 216 (c) Article 231 (d) Article 241
Q54. The retirement age difference between Supreme Court and High Court judges is: (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years (d) There is no difference
Q55. Lok Adalat awards have the status of: (a) A recommendation only (b) A civil court decree, final and binding (c) An advisory opinion (d) A criminal court judgment subject to appeal
Q56. The National Legal Services Authority's Patron-in-Chief is: (a) The President (b) The Chief Justice of India (c) The Union Law Minister (d) The Attorney General
Q57. Which of the following states was NOT covered by the Sixth Schedule? (a) Assam (b) Tripura (c) Manipur (d) Mizoram
Q58. The Panchayat tier that can be skipped in states with a population below 20 lakh is: (a) Village level (b) Intermediate level (c) District level (d) All tiers are always mandatory
Q59. Which Article deals with the President's power to make regulations for certain Union Territories? (a) Article 239 (b) Article 239AA (c) Article 240 (d) Article 241
Q60. The Wards Committee under Article 243S is mandatory for municipalities with a population of at least: (a) 1 lakh (b) 3 lakh (c) 5 lakh (d) 10 lakh
Section D: Constitutional Bodies, Non-Constitutional Bodies, Emergency & Amendment (Q61–80)
Q61. The CAG's salary and conditions of service are determined by: (a) The President (b) Parliament, by law (c) The Finance Commission (d) The CAG's own rules
Q62. The National Commission for Backward Classes transitioned to constitutional status via: (a) 97th Amendment (b) 99th Amendment (c) 102nd Amendment (d) 103rd Amendment
Q63. Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:
- Its Chairman must be a retired judge.
- Its recommendations include grants-in-aid principles. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q64. The Election Commission's power to conduct delimitation is exercised through: (a) The ECI itself directly (b) A separate temporary Delimitation Commission (c) NITI Aayog (d) The Finance Commission
Q65. Which of the following is a correct statement about the Lokpal? (a) It cannot inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister under any circumstances (b) It can inquire into allegations against the PM, subject to certain safeguards (c) It has no jurisdiction over any central government functionary (d) It was established by an executive resolution
Q66. The CBI's investigative jurisdiction stems from: (a) A dedicated statute named the "CBI Act" (b) The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (c) The Constitution directly (d) The CVC Act, 2003
Q67. Which body was established following the Vineet Narain case's directions? (a) NHRC (b) Statutory status for CVC (c) NITI Aayog (d) Lokpal
Q68. National Emergency under Article 352 requires approval within: (a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 2 months (d) 6 months
Q69. Which of the following Emergency types has NEVER been invoked in Indian history? (a) National Emergency (b) President's Rule (c) Financial Emergency (d) All have been invoked at least once
Q70. The 38th Amendment's provision barring judicial review of Article 356 was reversed by: (a) 39th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 91st Amendment
Q71. Amending Article 368 itself requires: (a) Simple majority (b) Special majority only (c) Special majority plus state ratification (d) A national referendum
Q72. The 91st Amendment strengthened the Anti-Defection Law by: (a) Adding a new ground for disqualification (b) Removing the earlier "split" exception (1/3rd) (c) Reducing the merger threshold to 1/2 (d) Abolishing the Tenth Schedule
Q73. Consider the following statements about the GST Council:
- It was constituted within 60 days of the 101st Amendment's commencement.
- Its Vice-Chairperson is elected from among state Finance Ministers. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q74. The Inter-State Council under Article 263 can be established: (a) Only during a National Emergency (b) At any time the President considers it necessary in public interest (c) Only by a Supreme Court order (d) Only by unanimous state consent
Q75. Article 300A deals with: (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies (b) Right to Property as a legal right (c) Right to Education (d) Right to Privacy
Q76. Which Amendment introduced Article 21A? (a) 42nd (b) 44th (c) 86th (d) 93rd
Q77. The National Human Rights Commission's Chairperson qualification (as amended in 2019) requires having been: (a) Only a former Chief Justice of India (b) A former CJI OR a Judge of the Supreme Court (c) Any retired High Court judge (d) A serving Supreme Court judge
Q78. Which of the following bodies' recommendation must be explained to Parliament via a memorandum, if not accepted? (a) NITI Aayog (b) UPSC (c) NHRC (d) CVC
Q79. Consider the following statements:
- The CVC Act, 2003, followed judicial directions in the Vineet Narain case.
- The CVC's Chairperson is called the Central Vigilance Commissioner. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q80. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched (Body — Founding Basis)? (a) NITI Aayog — Statutory (b) CVC (post-2003) — Statutory (c) NCBC (current) — Statutory (d) Finance Commission — Statutory Answer choices reflect only ONE correct pairing among these four.
Section E: Federalism, Electoral System, Current Affairs, Miscellaneous (Q81–100)
Q81. Residuary legislative power under the Indian Constitution vests with: (a) States (b) Parliament (c) The judiciary (d) Joint Centre-state committees
Q82. The phrase "as nearly as may be" in the context of women's reservation (106th Amendment) reflects: (a) A strict mathematical guarantee (b) A best-effort standard given practical constraints in exact seat division (c) An optional provision (d) A phrase with no legal significance
Q83. Which Article provides that the Union shall protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance? (a) Article 352 (b) Article 355 (c) Article 356 (d) Article 360
Q84. The NOTA option in Indian elections was introduced following: (a) A constitutional amendment (b) A Supreme Court directive in the PUCL case (c) An Election Commission unilateral decision without judicial basis (d) An Act of Parliament specifically for NOTA
Q85. Which of the following correctly describes Financial Bill Type II? (a) It requires Presidential recommendation for introduction (b) It requires Presidential recommendation only for consideration/passage, not introduction (c) It can never be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (d) It follows the exact same procedure as a Money Bill
Q86. The Delimitation Commission's orders: (a) Can be challenged in the Supreme Court (b) Can be challenged only in High Courts (c) Cannot be challenged in any court (d) Require ratification by all state legislatures
Q87. Which of the following is true about the Election Commission and Panchayat elections? (a) ECI conducts them directly (b) The State Election Commission conducts them (c) NITI Aayog conducts them (d) The Union Home Ministry conducts them
Q88. The electoral bonds scheme, struck down in 2024, was found to violate: (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a) — right to information (c) Article 21 (d) Article 300A
Q89. Consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court's sanctioned strength was increased to 38 via an ordinance in 2026.
- This was the first increase since 2019. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q90. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, aimed to: (a) Increase reservation for SC/ST (b) Delink women's reservation implementation from the 2027 census (c) Abolish the GST Council (d) Create a new All-India Service
Q91. Which of the following best describes "asymmetric federalism" in the Indian context? (a) Uniform powers for all states (b) Differing constitutional status for different states/regions (c) The absence of any federal features (d) Complete state sovereignty
Q92. The "Multiple Streams Framework" in policy studies is associated with: (a) Charles Lindblom (b) John Kingdon (c) Cohen, March, Olsen (d) Max Weber
Q93. Centrally Sponsored Schemes are distinguished from Central Sector Schemes primarily by: (a) State cost-sharing and state-level implementation (b) Complete Union funding and Union implementation (c) No state role whatsoever in either (d) Exclusive private sector delivery
Q94. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair (Country — Feature borrowed by India)? (a) USA — Concurrent List (b) Australia — Judicial Review (c) Canada — Residuary Powers with the Union (d) UK — Directive Principles Answer choices reflect only ONE correct pairing among these four.
Q95. The "implementation gap" in public policy most directly refers to: (a) A gap in agenda-setting (b) A gap between designed policy intent and actual on-ground outcomes (c) A gap in legislative drafting only (d) A gap only in judicial interpretation
Q96. Which of the following bodies exemplifies "cooperative federalism" most directly through joint Centre-state decision-making with weighted voting? (a) NITI Aayog (b) Finance Commission (c) GST Council (d) Election Commission
Q97. Consider the following statements about Article 371J (Karnataka):
- It addresses the Hyderabad-Karnataka (Kalyana-Karnataka) region.
- It was inserted by the 98th Amendment, 2012. Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither
Q98. The doctrine of "harmonious construction" between Fundamental Rights and DPSP is most associated with which case? (a) Golaknath (b) Minerva Mills (c) Shankari Prasad (d) Champakam Dorairajan
Q99. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of judicial appointment "Judges Cases"? (a) Second → First → Third → Fourth (b) First → Second → Third → Fourth (c) Fourth → Third → Second → First (d) Third → First → Fourth → Second
Q100. Which of the following best captures NITI Aayog's institutional character? (a) A constitutional body with binding powers over states (b) A statutory body created by Parliament (c) An extra-constitutional/executive body functioning as a policy think tank (d) A judicial body
Answer Key
Section A: 1-c; 2-b; 3-b; 4-b; 5-b; 6-a; 7-c; 8-c; 9-a; 10-d; 11-b; 12-c; 13-b; 14-c; 15-b; 16-b; 17-b; 18-b; 19-b; 20-b
Section B: 21-c; 22-b; 23-b; 24-b; 25-b; 26-b; 27-c; 28-b; 29-c; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-b; 34-b; 35-b; 36-b; 37-b; 38-c; 39-b; 40-b
Section C: 41-b; 42-b; 43-b; 44-c; 45-b; 46-b; 47-b; 48-b; 49-b; 50-b; 51-b; 52-b; 53-c; 54-b (65 vs 62 = 3 years); 55-b; 56-b; 57-c; 58-b; 59-c; 60-b
Section D: 61-b; 62-c; 63-b; 64-b; 65-b; 66-b; 67-b; 68-b; 69-c; 70-c; 71-c; 72-b; 73-c; 74-b; 75-b; 76-c; 77-b; 78-b; 79-c; 80-b
Section E: 81-b; 82-b; 83-b; 84-b; 85-b; 86-c; 87-b; 88-b; 89-c; 90-b; 91-b; 92-b; 93-a; 94-c; 95-b; 96-c; 97-c; 98-b; 99-b; 100-c
Chapter 31 Quick Revision Sheet
Having now completed two independent 200-question mock assessments (Chapters 19 and 31), cross-reference any topic where you missed questions in both tests — a repeated miss across two independently-written question sets is a strong signal of a genuine, not just coincidental, knowledge gap requiring targeted re-study.