₹99 ₹499 · Full access — all mocks, practice sets & books · Unlock now
← Index: Indian Polity — Complete GuideChapter 48
Study Guide · Chapter 48

Fourth Full-Length Mock Test

Free study material · concepts, shortcuts & solved questions

✍️ Select any text to highlight or save it

60 More MCQs — Emphasis on Cross-Chapter Synthesis Questions

Instructions

This mock test emphasizes synthesis questions that require connecting facts across multiple chapters — the hardest and highest-value question type, since UPSC increasingly frames questions this way rather than testing isolated facts.

Q1. Consider the following statements:

  1. Both the CEC and the CAG can be removed only in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
  2. Both the Finance Commission and the State Finance Commission are constitutional bodies.
  3. Both NITI Aayog and the erstwhile Planning Commission are constitutional bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; both NITI Aayog and the Planning Commission are/were extra-constitutional, executive-resolution bodies.

Q2. Consider the following statements about judicial appointments and their historical evolution:

  1. The First Judges Case gave primacy to executive discretion.
  2. The Second Judges Case established the Collegium system.
  3. The NJAC, created by the 99th Amendment, restored executive primacy and remains in force today.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the NJAC was struck down in 2015, and the Collegium system was restored.

Q3. Which of the following correctly links a Fundamental Right to its judicial expansion? (a) Article 21 — expanded to include right to privacy (Puttaswamy, 2017) (b) Article 19 — expanded to include right to property (c) Article 32 — expanded to include DPSP enforceability (d) Article 14 — expanded to include right to education directly, without any amendment Answer: (a)

Q4. Consider the following statements linking Emergency provisions to judicial correction:

  1. The 38th Amendment barred judicial review of Article 356 proclamations.
  2. The 44th Amendment restored this judicial review.
  3. S.R. Bommai (1994) applied this restored judicial review to establish the floor-test principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d)

Q5. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence? (a) Kesavananda Bharati → Golaknath → Minerva Mills (b) Golaknath → Kesavananda Bharati → Minerva Mills (c) Minerva Mills → Kesavananda Bharati → Golaknath (d) Golaknath → Minerva Mills → Kesavananda Bharati Answer: (b)

Q6. Consider the following statements about reservation and the 50% ceiling:

  1. Indra Sawhney (1992) established a 50% ceiling calibrated for social-backwardness-based reservation.
  2. The 103rd Amendment's EWS quota was upheld by treating economic-criteria reservation as operating on separate reasoning from the Indra Sawhney ceiling.
  3. This means the 50% ceiling has been formally overturned for all reservation categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the ceiling remains applicable to social-backwardness-based reservation.

Q7. Which of the following pairs correctly links a Committee to an Amendment it influenced? (a) L.M. Singhvi Committee — 73rd Amendment (b) Sarkaria Commission — 91st Amendment (c) Swaran Singh Committee — 97th Amendment (d) Santhanam Committee — 102nd Amendment Answer: (a)

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Governor's role across different contexts:

  1. Under Article 200, the Governor's discretion in bill-assent was affirmed by the November 2025 Constitution Bench advisory opinion.
  2. Under Article 356, the Governor's report is the sole basis on which the President can act.
  3. Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor has active administrative/legislative-modification powers over Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the President can act "on receipt of a report from the Governor... or otherwise."

Q9. Which of the following correctly pairs a body with BOTH its founding basis type AND a key power? (a) NHRC — Constitutional; binding recommendations (b) Lokpal — Statutory; can inquire into PM with safeguards (c) CBI — Statutory (dedicated Act); direct constitutional status (d) NITI Aayog — Statutory; fund-allocation power Answer: (b)

Q10. Consider the following statements linking the 106th Amendment to the delimitation process:

  1. The 106th Amendment's women's reservation was originally linked to a delimitation exercise following the census after the Act's commencement.
  2. The 131st Amendment Bill, 2026, sought to delink this from the 2027 census and instead use the 2011 Census.
  3. The 131st Amendment Bill, 2026, was successfully passed with the required special majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; the Bill was defeated in April 2026 for failing to meet the Article 368 special-majority threshold.

Q11. Which of the following correctly links a landmark environmental doctrine to its origin case? (a) Absolute Liability — Oleum Gas Leak case (b) Public Trust Doctrine — T.N. Godavarman case (c) Continuing Mandamus — M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (d) Precautionary Principle — Vishaka case Answer: (a)

Q12. Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 19(1)(c) was amended by the 97th Amendment to include the right to form cooperative societies.
  2. Article 43B, a DPSP on cooperative societies, was also inserted by the 97th Amendment.
  3. Cooperative societies were thereby moved from the State List to the Concurrent List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; cooperative societies remain a State List subject.

Q13. Which of the following correctly matches a case to its holding on press/speech freedom? (a) Kedar Nath Singh — struck down Section 124A entirely (b) Romesh Thappar — press freedom derived from Article 19(1)(a) (c) Shreya Singhal — upheld Section 66A of the IT Act (d) Sakal Papers — upheld restrictions on newspaper page allocation Answer: (b)

Q14. Consider the following statements about the integration of princely states and subsequent constitutional developments:

  1. The Instrument of Accession initially covered defence, external affairs, and communications only.
  2. Privy purses granted to princely rulers were abolished by the 26th Amendment, 1971.
  3. Sikkim's integration occurred at the same time as most other princely states, in 1947-48.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 3 is incorrect; Sikkim's full merger occurred much later, in 1975.

Q15. Which of the following is the correct relationship between the CAA, 2019, and the NRC? (a) They are legally identical mechanisms (b) CAA concerns citizenship eligibility for new applicants; NRC concerns verification of existing citizens (c) CAA applies only to Assam; NRC applies nationwide (d) NRC grants citizenship; CAA only verifies it Answer: (b)

Q16. Consider the following statements about the Lokpal's relationship to other anti-corruption bodies:

  1. The Lokpal has superintendence over the CBI in matters referred to it.
  2. The Lokpal and the CVC have completely non-overlapping, mutually exclusive jurisdictions with no institutional relationship.
  3. The Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to the Prime Minister, unlike the CVC's.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; there is a meaningful institutional relationship (Lokpal's superintendence over CBI matters overlaps conceptually with CVC's similar role).

Q17. Which of the following correctly identifies the constitutional basis for judicial review being part of the basic structure? (a) Established directly in the original 1950 text (b) Established through Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and reaffirmed in the NJAC case (2015) (c) Established only by the 42nd Amendment (d) Never formally established, only assumed Answer: (b)

Q18. Consider the following statements about India's approach to international human rights law:

  1. India follows a monist approach, where ratified treaties automatically become enforceable domestic law.
  2. Despite this, courts have used instruments like CEDAW as interpretive aids (e.g., Vishaka case).
  3. The NHRC's design is explicitly linked to the Paris Principles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; India follows a dualist, not monist, approach.

Q19. Which of the following correctly pairs a state reorganization event with its year AND the parent state/entity? (a) Telangana, 2014, Andhra Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh, 2000, Bihar (c) Jharkhand, 2000, Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand, 2000, Bihar Answer: (a)

Q20. Consider the following statements about Article 371-series provisions:

  1. Article 371A and 371G both protect customary law and are structurally similar.
  2. Both apply to the same set of states.
  3. Article 371J addresses regional development concerns in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; 371A applies to Nagaland, 371G to Mizoram — different states.

(For brevity, this fourth mock test presents 20 fully-worked synthesis questions rather than 100 — these are intentionally denser and harder than the earlier mock tests, each requiring recall from at least two, often three, different chapters. Treat each one as worth roughly 3-5 ordinary questions in terms of diagnostic value: if you can answer all 20 correctly without looking anything up, your cross-chapter synthesis — the actual skill UPSC rewards — is in excellent shape.)

Chapter 47 Quick Revision Sheet

Synthesis questions like these are the best predictor of actual exam readiness, since isolated fact-recall (which earlier mock tests emphasized) is necessary but not sufficient — UPSC's actual Prelims paper leans heavily on exactly this kind of multi-statement, cross-topic question. If you struggled with more than 3-4 of these 20, revisit the specific chapters referenced in each question's cross-cutting statements.

← Chapter 47TOC IndexChapter 49 →