Ninth Full-Length Mock Test
Free study material · concepts, shortcuts & solved questions
40 MCQs on Comparative State Governance Plus Mixed Review
Q1. Which state's decentralization model is most frequently cited as a benchmark for genuine Panchayati Raj devolution? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
Q2. Andhra Pradesh's Legislative Council was abolished in 1985 and revived in: (a) 1995 (b) 2000 (c) 2007 (d) 2014
Q3. A Governor's role as ex-officio Chancellor of state universities derives from: (a) Article 153 (b) Article 200 (c) State-specific legislative/convention arrangements (d) Article 371
Q4. State Human Rights Commissions operate under the same statute as the NHRC, namely: (a) NHRC Act, 1990 (b) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (c) Human Rights Commission Act, 2000 (d) State Rights Act, 2005
Q5. Consider the following statements:
- All Indian states have implemented Panchayati Raj devolution to an identical degree.
- The "3F devolution gap" illustrates uneven implementation across states.
- NITI Aayog's devolution indices have been used to assess comparative state performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; implementation varies significantly across states.
Mixed Cumulative Review (Q6–40)
Q6. The Constitution's original number of Schedules was: (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
Q7. The 97th Amendment relates to: (a) GST (b) Cooperative societies (c) NCBC (d) EWS reservation
Q8. The Governor's ordinance power is under: (a) Article 123 (b) Article 200 (c) Article 213 (d) Article 356
Q9. The CVC became statutory in: (a) 1964 (b) 1988 (c) 2003 (d) 2013
Q10. The Finance Commission recommends distribution of: (a) Judicial appointments (b) Tax revenues between Union and states (c) Parliamentary seats (d) Cabinet portfolios
Q11. Joint sitting has been used: (a) Once (b) Twice (c) Three times (d) Five times
Q12. The minimum age for Lok Sabha membership is: (a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
Q13. Article 32 is: (a) Not enforceable (b) Itself a Fundamental Right (c) A DPSP (d) A Fundamental Duty
Q14. The Sixth Schedule creates: (a) Reserved parliamentary seats (b) Autonomous District/Regional Councils (c) The Finance Commission (d) The UPSC
Q15. Reservation in promotion for SC/ST was enabled by: (a) 73rd/74th Amendments (b) 77th/81st Amendments (c) 91st/97th Amendments (d) 102nd/103rd Amendments
Q16. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations against the PM: (a) Never (b) With specific subject-matter exclusions and safeguards (c) Without any restriction (d) Only after PM's resignation
Q17. The "golden triangle" links Articles: (a) 12, 13, 14 (b) 14, 19, 21 (c) 32, 226, 141 (d) 352, 356, 360
Q18. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath established: (a) Absolute Liability (b) Public Trust Doctrine (c) Precautionary Principle (d) Polluter Pays
Q19. India's treaty-implementation power for State List subjects derives from: (a) Article 249 (b) Article 250 (c) Article 253 (d) Article 262
Q20. The IFS is a: (a) Constitutional body (b) Central Civil Service (c) All-India Service (d) Statutory tribunal
Q21. Preventive detention's operative Advisory Board threshold is: (a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year
Q22. The Whistleblowers Protection Act was passed in: (a) 2005 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2019
Q23. RTI's overriding-effect provision is: (a) Section 4 (b) Section 8 (c) Section 22 (d) Section 6
Q24. Digital India launched in: (a) 2010 (b) 2014 (c) 2015 (d) 2019
Q25. Aadhaar's Section 57 was struck down for permitting: (a) Government welfare linkage (b) Private company authentication demands (c) UIDAI creation (d) PAN linkage
Q26. The NIA Act followed: (a) 2001 attack (b) 2008 Mumbai attacks (c) 1993 bombings (d) 2016 Uri attack
Q27. Judicial pendency's largest litigant is typically: (a) Private companies (b) The government (c) Individuals (d) NGOs
Q28. The Mediation Act was passed in: (a) 1996 (b) 2015 (c) 2019 (d) 2023
Q29. Kerala's decentralization campaign began in: (a) 1985 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2000
Q30. Consider the following statements:
- Six states currently have Legislative Councils.
- All Legislative Councils, once established, are permanent and cannot be abolished.
Which is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) Neither Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; Parliament can abolish a Council (Article 169), and this has happened (e.g., Andhra Pradesh, 1985).
Q31. The RFCTLARR Act replaced the: (a) 1894 Act (b) 1935 Act (c) 1950 Act (d) 1976 Act
Q32. RERA was enacted in: (a) 2013 (b) 2016 (c) 2019 (d) 2023
Q33. GST Council's Centre voting weight is: (a) 1/4th (b) 1/3rd (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3rd
Q34. Article 271 surcharges are: (a) Shared with states (b) Not shared with states (c) Abolished (d) State-collected
Q35. The BNS Section replacing sedition's function is: (a) Section 124A (b) Section 149 (c) Section 152 (d) Section 300
Q36. The "creamy layer" originated for: (a) SC (b) ST (c) OBC (d) EWS
Q37. CEDAW was ratified by India in: (a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1993 (d) 2007
Q38. Vishaka guidelines drew upon: (a) UDHR (b) ICCPR (c) CEDAW (d) CRC
Q39. T.M.A. Pai Foundation case addressed: (a) Reservation policy (b) Minority institution regulation (c) Emergency provisions (d) Fiscal federalism
Q40. The single most useful final-week revision chapter for blind case-law self-testing in this package is: (a) Chapter 15 (b) Chapter 25 (c) Chapter 53 (d) Chapter 20
Answer Key
1-b; 2-c; 3-c; 4-b; 5-a; 6-b; 7-b; 8-c; 9-c; 10-b; 11-c; 12-b; 13-b; 14-b; 15-b; 16-b; 17-b; 18-b; 19-c; 20-b; 21-b; 22-c; 23-c; 24-c; 25-b; 26-b; 27-b; 28-d; 29-c; 30-a; 31-a; 32-b; 33-b; 34-b; 35-c; 36-c; 37-c; 38-c; 39-b; 40-c
Chapter 65 Quick Revision Sheet
Nine mock tests now exist. At this density of practice material, the marginal value of additional pure-MCQ chapters begins to decline relative to deepening remaining conceptual gaps — subsequent chapters in this package shift back toward substantive new content areas.