Eighth Full-Length Mock Test

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50 MCQs — Judicial Infrastructure Plus Deep Cumulative Review

Q1. Which Law Commission report first recommended a substantial increase in India's judge strength? (a) 42nd Report (b) 120th Report (c) 170th Report (d) 262nd Report

Q2. Which of the following is frequently identified as India's single largest litigant? (a) Private corporations (b) The government (c) Foreign entities (d) NGOs

Q4. Lok Adalat awards are: (a) Appealable to the High Court (b) Final and binding, like a civil court decree (c) Advisory only (d) Applicable only to criminal cases

Q5. The National Judicial Data Grid primarily serves to: (a) Appoint judges (b) Provide real-time pendency data (c) Draft legislation (d) Conduct elections

Q6. Fast-track courts are: (a) Permanent constitutional bodies (b) Temporary/category-specific courts to expedite particular case types (c) A substitute for the Supreme Court (d) Established only in Delhi

Q8. Consider the following statements:

e-Courts digitization fully solves the judge-shortage problem.
Vacancies in sanctioned judicial posts compound the raw judge-shortage problem.
Government litigation reform (National Litigation Policy) aims to reduce unnecessary government-initiated appeals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) — Statement 1 is incorrect; digitization addresses procedural friction, not the underlying judge-shortage problem.

Deep Cumulative Review (Q9–50)

Q9. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and enforced on: (a) 15 August 1950 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 24 January 1950 (d) 1 April 1950

Q10. The Drafting Committee's Chairman was: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Sardar Patel (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q11. Fundamental Rights span which Articles? (a) 12-35 (b) 36-51 (c) 51A (d) 14-32

Q12. DPSP were borrowed from: (a) USA (b) UK (c) Ireland (d) Canada

Q13. The President's ordinance power is under: (a) Article 72 (b) Article 111 (c) Article 123 (d) Article 213

Q14. Rajya Sabha's maximum strength under Article 80 is: (a) 245 (b) 250 (c) 543 (d) 550

Q15. The Governor's pardoning power under Article 161 excludes: (a) Fines (b) Death sentences (c) Imprisonment (d) Suspension of sentence

Q16. Article 371A protects: (a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland (c) Sikkim (d) Manipur

Q17. Panchayati Raj's Eleventh Schedule has how many subjects? (a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 29 (d) 31

Q18. The Supreme Court's retirement age is: (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 70

Q19. The NHRC Chairperson must have been: (a) A District Judge (b) CJI or a Supreme Court judge (c) Any retired judge (d) A serving High Court judge

Q20. NITI Aayog's Governing Council includes: (a) Only Union Ministers (b) All state Chief Ministers and UT Administrators (c) Only the Finance Commission (d) Only judges

Q21. The 44th Amendment reversed excesses of the: (a) 24th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 73rd Amendment (d) 91st Amendment

Q23. RTI applications can be filed by: (a) Any person (b) Only citizens (c) Only journalists (d) Only NGOs

Q24. The NDMA is chaired by: (a) Home Minister (b) Prime Minister (c) President (d) NDMA CEO

Q25. Cooperative societies fall under: (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary

Q27. Press freedom derives from: (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 32

Q28. OBC reservation is capped at approximately: (a) 15% (b) 27% (c) 33% (d) 50%

Q30. The Oleum Gas Leak case established: (a) Polluter Pays (b) Absolute Liability (c) Precautionary Principle (d) Public Trust Doctrine

Q31. India's approach to treaties is: (a) Monist (b) Dualist (c) Neither (d) Automatic incorporation

Q32. Article 30 protects: (a) Majority institutions (b) Minority educational institutions (c) Government schools only (d) Universities only

Q33. The Indian Independence Act came into effect: (a) 18 July 1947 (b) 15 August 1947 (c) 26 January 1950 (d) 9 December 1946

Q34. Hyderabad's integration used: (a) A plebiscite (b) Operation Polo (c) A UN mandate (d) Direct annexation without resistance

Q35. The National Anthem was adopted on: (a) 22 July 1947 (b) 26 November 1949 (c) 24 January 1950 (d) 26 January 1950

Q36. CAA, 2019, excludes: (a) Hindus (b) Sikhs (c) Muslims (d) Buddhists

Q37. Article 23 applies against: (a) State only (b) State and private individuals (c) Private individuals only (d) Foreigners only

Q39. RFCTLARR requires what consent for PPP projects? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%

Q40. RERA's escrow requirement is: (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 100%

Q41. Article 246A relates to: (a) Income tax (b) GST (c) Customs (d) Corporation tax

Q42. Surcharges under Article 271 are: (a) Shared with states (b) Not shared with states (c) Abolished (d) State-exclusive

Q44. Preventive detention Advisory Board review applies beyond: (a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year

Q45. The Whistleblowers Protection Act is: (a) Fully implemented (b) Passed but not fully implemented (c) Repealed (d) Never passed

Q46. The Official Secrets Act is: (a) Post-independence (b) Colonial-era, still in force (c) Repealed (d) Part of the Constitution

Q48. The Aadhaar Act was passed as a: (a) Ordinary Bill (b) Money Bill (c) Constitutional Amendment (d) Financial Bill Type II

Q50. SC strength as of the 2026 ordinance is: (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 42

Answer Key

1-b; 2-b; 3-d; 4-b; 5-b; 6-b; 7-b; 8-a; 9-b; 10-c; 11-a; 12-c; 13-c; 14-b; 15-b; 16-b; 17-c; 18-c; 19-b; 20-b; 21-b; 22-c; 23-b; 24-b; 25-b; 26-b; 27-b; 28-b; 29-b; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-b; 34-b; 35-c; 36-c; 37-b; 38-b; 39-c; 40-c; 41-b; 42-b; 43-b; 44-b; 45-b; 46-b; 47-c; 48-b; 49-c; 50-c

Chapter 63 Quick Revision Sheet

Eight mock tests, several hundred questions, now form the assessment backbone of this package. If your score on this deep cumulative-review test (Q9-50) is meaningfully lower than your score on topic-focused tests, it signals a retention problem rather than a comprehension problem — the fix is spaced repetition (revisiting Chapters 1-20 periodically) rather than re-reading harder.

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