Law graduates in Andhra Pradesh have two broad government routes into the courtroom side of the State: the judicial service, where a successful candidate becomes a Civil Judge (Junior Division), and the prosecution service, where a candidate becomes an Assistant Public Prosecutor. The two routes are run by different bodies, use different exams and ask for different experience. They are often mixed up, and that confusion costs candidates months. This guide separates them, and it is built from the notifications themselves rather than from summaries.
As on 7 October 2026. The High Court of Andhra Pradesh at Amaravati has an open notification for Civil Judge (Junior Division): Notification No. 118/2026-RC dated 25 September 2026, for 119 posts, with online applications from 1 October 2026 to 26 October 2026 (up to 11:59 PM). The screening test date has not been announced. For Assistant Public Prosecutor there is no open notification on the State Level Police Recruitment Board (SLPRB) site; the last cycle was Notification Rc.No.115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025 dated 4 August 2025, and its selection list was published on 23 December 2025. Always check the official pages before acting, because dates and numbers can be amended.
For the wider map of State recruitment, see the Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026 guide. For the clerical side of the same court system, see the AP High Court assistant guide.
Who recruits for which legal post
Before the details, fix the map. Each body below is named in an official document that was opened for this guide.
| Post | Recruiting body | Latest official record |
|---|---|---|
| Civil Judge (Junior Division), direct and by transfer | High Court of Andhra Pradesh | Notification 118/2026-RC, 25 Sept 2026, 119 posts |
| Civil Judge (Senior Division), departmental competitive exam | High Court of Andhra Pradesh | Listing dated 17 Sept 2026, 16 posts, serving Civil Judges (Junior Division) only |
| District Judge (Entry Level), direct recruitment | Government of Andhra Pradesh, General Administration (SC.F) Department, with the High Court | Notification 364/2026, 30 Sept 2026, 10 posts |
| Assistant Public Prosecutor | SLPRB, for the State Prosecution Department | Rc.No.115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025, 4 Aug 2025, 42 posts |
| Public Prosecutor, Additional Public Prosecutor (district) | State Government under Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 | Statute; no recruitment exam |
Notice that APPSC does not appear in the table. A common assumption is that prosecutors are recruited by the Public Service Commission. In the 2025 cycle the recruiting agency was the Police Recruitment Board, and the department was the State Prosecution Department. If a future cycle changes this, the notification will say so.
Notification 118/2026-RC at a glance
The notification states that recruitment is governed by the Andhra Pradesh State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026, and that the High Court decides any step not covered by the Rules.
| Item | What the notification says |
|---|---|
| Notification | No. 118/2026-RC dated 25.09.2026 |
| Posts | 119: 96 direct recruitment and 23 recruitment by transfer |
| Pay scale | Rs 77,840 - 1,36,520 |
| Online application | 1 October 2026 to 26 October 2026, up to 11:59 PM |
| Fee | Rs 1,500 (open, EWS, BC); Rs 750 (SC, ST, persons with benchmark disabilities) |
| Age, direct | Not completed 35 years on 1 September 2026 |
| Age, transfer | Not completed 48 years on 1 September 2026 |
| Stages | Computer based screening test, written examination, viva voce |
| Test centres | Guntur, Kurnool, Rajahmundry (Rajamahendravaram), Tirupati, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam |
The notification also reserves the right to increase or decrease vacancies or cancel the notification at any stage. That line appears in nearly every recruitment document, and it is the reason to treat vacancy numbers as provisional.
How the 119 posts are divided
Direct recruitment has 96 posts and recruitment by transfer has 23. The direct recruitment table is below, as printed in the notification. The numbers in brackets show posts for women within the category.
| Category | Direct recruitment posts |
|---|---|
| Open competition | 39 (13 for women; 1 each for blindness or low vision, deaf and hard of hearing, locomotor disability, and autism or intellectual disability or mental illness or multiple disabilities) |
| EWS | 9 (3 women) |
| BC-A | 7 (2 women) |
| BC-B | 10 (3 women) |
| BC-C | 1 |
| BC-D | 6 (2 women) |
| BC-E | 4 (1 woman) |
| SC Group-I | 1 |
| SC Group-II | 7 (2 women) |
| SC Group-III | 6 (2 women) |
| ST | 6 (2 women) |
| Total | 96 |
Recruitment by transfer has 18 open competition posts, 1 for SC Group-I, 1 for SC Group-III and 3 for ST, a total of 23. Selection against the BC-E vacancies is stated to be subject to the outcome of Civil Appeal Nos. 2628-2637 of 2010 pending before the Supreme Court. Candidates who plan to claim BC-E should read that note twice.
The practice requirement: what the Supreme Court said and how Andhra Pradesh applied it
This is the part of the notification that confuses most readers, so it is worth taking in order.
Stage one, the May 2025 judgment. On 20 May 2025 a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court headed by the Chief Justice of India held that a candidate for Civil Judge (Junior Division) must have at least three years of practice as an advocate. The decision overruled the position taken in the Court's 2002 judgment in the All India Judges Association case, which had removed the practice condition for entry-level posts. The practice had to be certified, and at larger stations an advocate of at least ten years' standing, endorsed by the Principal Judicial Officer, could certify it. Experience as a law clerk to a judge counted towards the three years. The ruling applied to recruitment processes begun after the judgment and left earlier selection processes untouched. The Court also stressed training for new appointees before they sit in court.
Stage two, the August 2026 modification. On 21 August 2026, in Bhumika Trust v. Union of India and others (Writ Petition (Civil) No. 1110 of 2025), a three-judge bench modified that direction. Reading the copy of the judgment and legal-news summaries, the position is this. For a transitional period running until 31 March 2027, all law graduates may apply, and they are deemed to hold one year of practice. After selection they are designated trainee judicial officers, spend one year at the State Judicial Academy and then one year in a structured law clerkship, and both years are treated as equal to a year of practice each, which completes the three-year idea in substance. From 1 April 2027, a candidate must show at least one year of actual practice, certified through the district courts. The scheme is to run for five years and then be reviewed.
Stage three, what the AP notification does. Notification 118/2026-RC cites the Bhumika Trust judgment of 21.08.2026 and the pending amendments to the AP State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026. For direct recruitment it states that law graduates with a law degree "preceding one year as on the date of Notification" are eligible, which reads as a law degree obtained at least one year before 25 September 2026. It then sets out the same training pattern in a section headed Training: selected candidates are called Trainee Judicial Officers, undergo one year of intensive training at the Judicial Academy on a fixed emolument equal to one half of the remuneration of a Civil Judge (Junior Division), then one year of structured law clerkship, six months under the Principal District or Sessions Judge or members of the Higher Judicial Service and six months under a High Court Judge, with the same emoluments as during academy training. Only after a reasoned evaluation report by the High Court Judge is the trainee appointed to the regular post with the regular pay scale.
Three practical readings follow. First, a candidate in 2026 does not need a Certificate of Practice from a bar association under this notification. Second, the one-year gap between the law degree and the notification date is an AP-specific condition printed in the notification, and a candidate whose degree was completed later than 25 September 2025 should not assume eligibility. Third, a candidate who plans for the next cycle, after 1 April 2027, should plan to practise for a year in the district courts and keep a record of cases handled, because the transitional relief ends.
What could not be verified. I could not open the text of the AP State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026 or the Government Order that notified them, so the Rules' own wording is not quoted. I also could not establish from the official pages which earlier notification produced the 41 Civil Judges (Junior Division) appointed by G.O.Ms.No.157 dated 27 August 2026, or whether the three-year condition was applied in that cycle. The High Court page lists that appointment order and a notice that those 41 were nominated for a one-year basic course at the Andhra Pradesh Judicial Academy from 27 September 2026 to 26 September 2027.
Who can apply: direct recruitment
The conditions printed in the notification, in plain words:
- A law degree obtained at least one year before the date of notification, as discussed above.
- Good character and freedom from any infirmity that makes the candidate unfit for the post.
- Indian citizenship.
- No dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement from judicial service or any government, statutory or local authority service.
- No conviction for an offence involving moral turpitude.
- No permanent debarment by the High Court, the Union Public Service Commission or a State Public Service Commission.
- No attempt to influence the recruiting authority.
- No more than one living spouse, and the same restriction for a woman who knowingly marries a person with a living spouse.
- No arrest in connection with a crime involving moral turpitude and concerned with the same.
The notification adds that a candidate who has copied or committed misconduct in the screening test or written examination, or who could not complete probation in a judicial or other service, cannot appear. An officer found to be of doubtful integrity in any year is not eligible. Direct recruitment means appointment of a person who is not in the service of the Government of India or a State.
Who can apply: recruitment by transfer
Recruitment by transfer is for employees who hold a law degree from a university established by law in India and who are confirmed members or approved probationers in listed categories. The list includes High Court staff such as section officers, court officers, scrutiny officers, accounts officers, court masters, personal secretaries to judges and registrars, deputy section officers, translators, senior system officers, assistants, examiners, typists and copyists; district judiciary staff such as chief administrative officers, superintendents, stenographers, senior assistants, junior assistants and typists; Assistant Public Prosecutors, Senior Assistant Public Prosecutors and Additional Public Prosecutors Grade-II of the prosecution services; section officers of the Law Department and the Legislature Department; and managers in the office of the Advocate General, Government Pleaders, Public Prosecutors and the Editor of the Indian Law Reports. A person facing disciplinary charges or serving a punishment is not eligible. These candidates must upload proof of probation declaration, the employer's permission to study law after joining service, a service and conduct certificate, and a no-objection certificate at verification.
Notice the entry for prosecutors. An Assistant Public Prosecutor who holds a law degree can apply for Civil Judge (Junior Division) by transfer. The prosecution route is therefore not a dead end: it connects to the judicial route.
Age, with a worked example
The upper age limit for direct recruitment is 35 years on 1 September 2026, the first day of the month in which the notification was published. A candidate must not have completed 35 years on that date. Someone born on 1 September 1991 completes 35 on 1 September 2026 and is therefore over age; someone born on 2 September 1991 completes 35 only on 2 September 2026 and is within the limit. The limit is relaxed by five years for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Backward Classes and EWS, and by ten years for persons with benchmark disabilities. Service in the defence services of the Union is excluded when computing age for direct recruitment. For recruitment by transfer, the limit is 48 years on the same date.
Age relaxation and reservation apply only if the right certificate is uploaded. For Backward Classes, a non-creamy layer certificate issued in 2025 or 2026 is required; without it the candidature is considered under open competition. For EWS, a certificate issued in 2025 or 2026 stating an annual family income below Rs 8,00,000 is required.
The three stages of selection
The notification does not use the words prelims and mains. It uses screening test, written examination and viva voce. The correspondence is close: the screening test is the shortlisting round, the written examination is the main stage, and the viva is the interview.
| Stage | Format | Marks | Role |
|---|---|---|---|
| Screening test | Computer based, 100 objective questions, 2 hours | 100 | Shortlisting only; marks not added to the final merit |
| Written examination | 3 papers, 3 hours each | 100 each | Papers I and II count towards merit; Paper III is a language test |
| Viva voce | Interview | 50 | Counts towards merit |
Screening test. Candidates who score 40 per cent or more are shortlisted in the ratio of 1 to 10 against the vacancies for the written examination. Equal marks at the cut-off bring in all tied candidates. Scoring the minimum does not give a right to be called. The marks are not added to the written examination and do not count in the final merit order. The notification, as read, does not state any negative marking, and it also does not state a syllabus split inside the 100 questions, so confirm on the hall ticket and in any instruction sheet.
Written examination. Paper I is Civil Laws, Paper II is Criminal Laws and Paper III is English (translation and essay writing). Each paper has 100 marks and runs for three hours. Answers are to be written in English, except the translation test. Paper III has two parts. Part I has 40 marks and requires translation of a passage from English to Telugu and from Telugu to English. Part II has 60 marks and tests essay writing on legal subjects only. The notification says a candidate must secure 40 per cent in each part of Paper III, and also says the marks in Paper III are not taken into account for eligibility for viva voce or selection. These two lines should be read together; the careful reading is that Paper III is a language test the candidate must clear, and that it does not add to merit. Verify against any clarification from the High Court.
Viva voce. The viva carries 50 marks. Candidates who qualify in the written examination are called in the ratio of 1 to 3 against vacancies in the respective categories, and ties at the cut-off are all called. Absence from the viva means disqualification.
Minimum marks, and a worked example
The thresholds are higher than most competitive examinations, so do the arithmetic before you plan.
| Category | Each of Paper I and II | Aggregate of Paper I and II to reach viva | Aggregate with viva for selection |
|---|---|---|---|
| Open, EWS (direct) | 55% | 60% | 60% |
| Backward Class (direct) | 50% | 55% | 55% |
| SC, ST, benchmark disabilities (direct) | 45% | 50% | 50% |
| Recruitment by transfer | 55% | 60% | 60% |
The final aggregate is out of 250: 100 for Paper I, 100 for Paper II and 50 for the viva.
Take an open category candidate who scores 62 in Paper I and 58 in Paper II. Each is above 55. The aggregate is 120 out of 200, which is exactly 60 per cent, so she qualifies for the viva. For final selection she needs 60 per cent of 250, which is 150 marks. She already has 120, so she needs at least 30 of the 50 viva marks, and in a competitive merit list she will need more than the minimum. Now take a Backward Class candidate with 52 and 51. Each is above the 50 per cent paper threshold, but the aggregate is 103 out of 200, and 55 per cent of 200 is 110. The candidate is short by 7 marks and does not reach the viva despite clearing each paper. The lesson is that the aggregate hurdle, not the per-paper hurdle, usually removes candidates.
Equal marks in the final list are resolved in favour of the elder candidate, then the candidate with higher educational qualification, then the one with higher marks in the prescribed qualification.
Syllabus: what the notification lists
The same list serves the screening test and the written examination. It is long, and the Acts are not of equal weight. The list is reproduced here in groups so that it can be mapped to a study calendar.
Civil laws (Paper I). The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; the Indian Contract Act, 1872; the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; the Hindu Succession Act, 1956; the Indian Easements Act, 1882; the Specific Relief Act, 1963; the Limitation Act, 1963; the Transfer of Property Act, 1882; the Civil Rules of Practice; the Registration Act, 1908 and the Indian Stamp Act, 1899; the A.P. Land Encroachment Act, 1905; the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (spelled that way in the notification; the statute's title is usually written Adhiniyam).
Criminal laws (Paper II). The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; the Indian Penal Code, 1860; the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023; the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881; the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005; the Criminal Rules of Practice; the A.P. Excise Act, 1968; the A.P. Gaming Act, 1974; the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015; the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006; the Information Technology Act, 2000; the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012; and the A.P. Forest Act, 1967.
Two features of this list shape preparation. First, both the old and the new criminal codes appear. The notification names the Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act next to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. A sensible method is to study each topic in the new law and keep a one-line note of the old section number, because an examiner can ask in either vocabulary and cases still refer to the old numbering. Second, there is a strong State component: the Land Encroachment Act, the Excise Act, the Gaming Act and the Forest Act are Andhra Pradesh statutes, and a candidate who studies only central law loses marks that are easy to win.
How to study the Acts
A judge's examination rewards procedure. Weak candidates memorise definitions; stronger ones can trace a case through the Code. Here are working methods for the heavy Acts.
Code of Civil Procedure. Build a timeline of a civil suit: plaint, summons, written statement, framing of issues, evidence, judgment, decree, appeal, execution. Tag each stage with its Order and Section. Questions often test the line between a decree and an order, the effect of non-appearance, set-off and counterclaim, and temporary injunctions.
Transfer of Property Act and Specific Relief Act. Learn the sale-lease-mortgage-gift family as a table: formalities, who may transfer, and rights of the transferee. For specific relief, divide the topics into recovery of possession, specific performance, rectification, cancellation, declaratory decrees and injunctions.
Limitation Act. Keep a card with the common periods and the point from which time runs, plus the rules on condonation and acknowledgment. A wrong starting point is the usual error.
Evidence. Use the old and new statutes side by side. The topics that carry questions are relevancy, admissions and confessions, dying declarations, burden of proof, presumptions and expert evidence.
Criminal codes. For the substantive code, group offences by type: against the body, against property, against women and children, against the State, and public order. For procedure, trace a case from first information to charge, trial, judgment and appeal. Mark bail, remand, compounding and limits on sentencing powers of magistrates as repeat topics.
State and special Acts. These are short. Read the definitions, the main offences, the powers of search and seizure and the penalties, and attempt a few questions on each.
Translation and essay. Practise a short English-to-Telugu and Telugu-to-English passage every day, with legal vocabulary, for a few minutes. For the essay, write one 400-word essay a week on a legal or constitutional theme and have it read by a person who is not afraid to mark it harshly.
Documents, fee and test centres
Direct recruitment candidates upload certificates of date of birth or SSC, the law degree, community certificate where reservation is claimed (showing the BC group), the latest non-creamy layer or EWS certificate, a medical board disability certificate with percentage, and the discharge certificate for ex-servicemen. Original documents are produced on the day fixed by the High Court, and a candidate who cannot produce any required certificate is rejected. The fee is paid online and is not refunded in any case. Only applicants from a community recognised as SC or ST in Andhra Pradesh are entitled to the Rs 750 concessional fee. Candidates choose three test centres from the six listed, but the High Court may allot another. The written examination venue is announced after the screening result. No travelling or daily allowance is paid for any stage.
After selection: training, pay and career
The pay scale printed in the notification is Rs 77,840 - 1,36,520, as on September 2026. During the first two years, as described above, the trainee receives half the remuneration for the academy year and the same emolument during clerkship. The structure is a significant change for planning, because it means about two years before regular posting.
The next rungs are not recruited the same way. A listing on the High Court site dated 17 September 2026 shows 16 Civil Judge (Senior Division) posts through a limited departmental competitive examination, open to serving Civil Judges (Junior Division). The State's notification 364/2026 dated 30 September 2026 invites applications for 10 District Judge (Entry Level) posts by direct recruitment, with pay Rs 1,44,840 - 1,94,660. It asks for seven years of practice as an advocate, or a combined standing of seven years as an advocate or judicial officer, or the same combined standing as an Assistant Public Prosecutor, Additional Public Prosecutor or Public Prosecutor, with an age between 35 and 45 on 1 September 2026, relaxed by three years for SC, ST, BC and EWS. Read that notification in full if you intend to go that way, because its conditions differ from the Civil Judge notification. A later check of the scanned notices adds three points: Notification 364/2026 asks for a paper application with a demand draft to reach the Registrar (Recruitment) by 5:00 PM on 15 October 2026; a separate High Court notification, R.O.C.No.365/2026-RC dated 30 September 2026, invites serving Civil Judges (Senior Division) to apply for 30 District Judge posts through a limited departmental competitive examination, with the same last date of 15 October 2026; and the 16-post Civil Judge (Senior Division) examination (R.O.C.No.366/2026-RC) had a last date of 1 October 2026, which has passed.
The prosecutor route: Assistant Public Prosecutor
The most recent notification is Rc.No.115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025 dated 4 August 2025, issued by the State Level Police Recruitment Board, Andhra Pradesh, for 42 posts of Assistant Public Prosecutor in the State Prosecution Department. An amendment dated 5 August 2025 restated the vacancy break-up, the women's reservation paragraph and the age relaxation paragraph.
| Item | Rc.No.115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025 |
|---|---|
| Posts | 42: 41 direct recruitment and 1 limited recruitment |
| Zones | Zone I (Visakhapatnam range) 13, Zone II (Eluru range) 12, Zone III (Guntur range) 12, Zone IV (Kurnool range) 4 direct plus 1 limited |
| Rules | A.P. State Prosecution Service Rules, 1992 (G.O.Ms.No.188, Home (Courts.C) Department, 30.03.1992) and amendments |
| Application window | 11 August 2025 to 7 September 2025, 5 PM |
| Fee | Rs 600; Rs 300 for local SC and ST candidates |
| Age | Below 42 on 1 July 2025 (born not earlier than 2 July 1983) |
| Pay | Rs 57,100 - 1,47,760 (RPS 2022); contributory pension scheme |
| Written examination | 5 October 2025 |
| Interview | 19 December 2025 |
| Result | Press release of 23 December 2025: 10 candidates selected |
Eligibility. A bachelor's degree in any subject together with a bachelor's degree in law, or a five-year integrated law course after intermediate, and at least three years of active practice in the criminal courts of the State as on the date of notification (4 August 2025). The notification notes that under Section 18(9) of the BNSS, the period in practice as a pleader or in service as a Public Prosecutor, Assistant Public Prosecutor or other prosecuting officer is deemed practice as an advocate. The candidate must not have impaired speech, hearing or sight. Relaxations of age: five years for non-creamy layer BC, SC and ST; ten years for orthopaedically handicapped persons; up to five years of regular State Government service; three years beyond service for defence service and NCC instructors; and three years for retrenched census employees.
Selection scheme. There are two papers of three hours each, both in English: Paper I with 200 objective questions for 200 marks and Paper II descriptive for 200 marks, both on the Constitution, the BNSS and the Criminal Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, the BSA, the BNS, minor Acts and special Acts. Qualifying marks are 40 per cent for open candidates, 35 for BC and 30 for SC, ST and ex-servicemen in each paper, and failing in one paper disqualifies. Candidates are called for interview in the ratio of 1 to 2 against vacancies on the basis of marks out of 400, and the interview carries 25 marks, so the final merit is out of 425. Candidates who skip the interview are not considered. Local candidates and non-local candidates compete as follows: the first 30 per cent of posts are filled from a combined merit list and the remaining 70 per cent from locals only. The 2025 notification also records that a non-local candidate is treated as open category and receives no reservation or relaxation.
Syllabus. The annexure lists the Constitution of India, the BNS, BNSS and BSA, 52 central minor Acts and 15 State Acts or rules. The central list includes the Arms Act, the Prevention of Corruption Act, the POCSO Act, the NDPS Act, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, the Juvenile Justice Act, the Information Technology Act and the Contempt of Courts Act. The State list includes the Prohibition Act, the Gaming Act, the Excise Act, the Forest Act, the Public Security Act and the Criminal Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990. The overlap with Paper II of the Civil Judge examination is large, which is a real advantage for a candidate preparing for both routes.
Reading the 2025 outcome. The SLPRB press release says 10 candidates were selected on the basis of marks, certificate verification and the interviews on 19 December 2025, and that the list would be sent to the Director of Prosecutions for character verification and medical examination. The release does not explain why 10 were selected against 42 notified, so no reason is stated here.
Public Prosecutor and Additional Public Prosecutor at district level
Public Prosecutors and Additional Public Prosecutors for districts are not recruited through an examination. Section 18 of the BNSS, as read from a statutory text, provides that the State Government appoints a Public Prosecutor for every district and may appoint Additional Public Prosecutors; the District Magistrate, in consultation with the Sessions Judge, prepares a panel of names and no one is appointed unless the name is on the panel; a State that has a regular cadre of prosecuting officers must appoint from that cadre, with an exception where no suitable person is available in it; and a person must have been in practice as an advocate for at least seven years. Special Public Prosecutors need ten years. The statute also allows a victim to engage an advocate of choice to assist the prosecution.
The prosecution cadre itself follows the Prosecution Service Rules. A legal database copy of the Rules lists seven categories, from Assistant Public Prosecutor at the bottom to the Director of Prosecutions at the top, with Assistant Public Prosecutor filled only by direct recruitment, Senior Assistant Public Prosecutor by promotion with two years of service, and Additional Public Prosecutor Grade-II filled 70 per cent by promotion and 30 per cent by direct recruitment. That database copy may not show the latest amendments, so treat the percentages and years as background and check the Rules as amended before relying on them.
Which route suits whom
| Question | Civil Judge (Junior Division) | Assistant Public Prosecutor |
|---|---|---|
| Recruiter | High Court of Andhra Pradesh | SLPRB |
| Last or current notification | 118/2026-RC, open to 26 Oct 2026 | 115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025, concluded Dec 2025 |
| Experience | Law degree one year before notification (2026 transitional rule); actual practice from the next cycle after 1 April 2027 | Three years in criminal courts |
| Upper age | 35 (direct) | 42 |
| Papers | Civil, criminal, English | Two papers on criminal law and the Constitution |
| Pay | Rs 77,840 - 1,36,520 | Rs 57,100 - 1,47,760 |
A candidate with a fresh law degree and no courtroom time has only the judicial route open in 2026. A practising criminal lawyer of several years, who is comfortable with the criminal statutes, can reasonably prepare for both, with Paper II of the judicial examination covering much of the prosecutor syllabus.
A 10-week plan, starting from the day you read this
The screening test date is not announced, so plan in weeks, not dates.
- Weeks 1 and 2: Read the notification line by line, complete the application before 26 October 2026, and fix the documents. Then start Paper I with the Code of Civil Procedure.
- Weeks 3 and 4: Contract, Transfer of Property, Specific Relief, Limitation. Attempt twenty objective questions on each.
- Weeks 5 and 6: The criminal codes and criminal procedure; the State Acts on a single day each.
- Week 7: Evidence, civil and criminal side by side.
- Week 8: Family law, registration and stamp, land encroachment, and the special Acts in the criminal list.
- Week 9: Timed screening-style tests of 100 questions in two hours. Review every wrong answer by naming the section.
- Week 10: Two full written papers of three hours each; write translation and an essay on alternate days.
Common exam traps
- Treating the August 2026 modification as if it removed the experience idea. It reduced the requirement and added training; it did not abolish the principle.
- Assuming the screening test marks count in the final merit. They do not.
- Reading the 60 per cent open category threshold as applying only to the written marks. The aggregate with the viva is also 60 per cent.
- Ignoring the Telugu translation part and discovering on the day that Paper III has a qualifying hurdle.
- Studying only the new criminal codes, or only the old ones, when the notification lists both.
- Forgetting the State Acts because they are short.
- Uploading an old non-creamy layer or EWS certificate, or one issued in the wrong year, and losing the reservation claim.
- Believing that APPSC recruits prosecutors.
Key facts for the exam
- Notification 118/2026-RC dated 25 September 2026: 119 posts, 96 direct and 23 by transfer, pay Rs 77,840 - 1,36,520.
- Online application 1 to 26 October 2026; fee Rs 1,500 and Rs 750.
- Age 35 for direct recruitment and 48 for transfer, both on 1 September 2026.
- Screening test: 100 questions, 100 marks, 2 hours, 40 per cent to be shortlisted in the ratio 1 to 10, marks not counted in merit.
- Written examination: Paper I Civil Laws, Paper II Criminal Laws, Paper III English, 100 marks and 3 hours each; viva 50 marks.
- Governing rules: Andhra Pradesh State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026.
- Supreme Court: 20 May 2025 three-year rule; 21 August 2026 modification in Bhumika Trust v. Union of India.
- Training for selected candidates: one year at the Judicial Academy and one year of law clerkship.
- Assistant Public Prosecutor 2025: 42 posts, SLPRB, two papers of 200 marks, interview of 25 marks, pay Rs 57,100 - 1,47,760.
- BNSS Section 18 needs seven years of practice for a district Public Prosecutor.
Ten practice questions
1. In Notification 118/2026-RC, the written examination for direct recruitment consists of: a) Two papers of 200 marks each b) Three papers of 100 marks each c) Four papers of 50 marks each d) One paper of 300 marks Answer: b. Civil Laws, Criminal Laws and English.
2. The screening test marks are: a) Added to the written marks b) Added to the viva marks c) Used only for shortlisting d) Counted for tie-breaking Answer: c.
3. An open category candidate scores 62 in Paper I and 58 in Paper II. For the viva she must also have an aggregate of at least: a) 50% b) 55% c) 60% d) 65% Answer: c. Her 120 out of 200 is exactly 60 per cent.
4. The final aggregate (written Papers I and II plus viva) for the Civil Judge direct recruitment is out of: a) 200 b) 250 c) 300 d) 350 Answer: b. 100 plus 100 plus 50.
5. The Supreme Court's modification of the three-year practice rule was delivered on: a) 20 May 2025 b) 21 August 2026 c) 1 April 2027 d) 25 September 2026 Answer: b.
6. Under the transitional arrangement, selected candidates are first called: a) Probationary Munsiffs b) Law Clerks c) Trainee Judicial Officers d) Junior Civil Judges Answer: c.
7. Which authority recruited Assistant Public Prosecutors in the 2025 cycle? a) APPSC b) SLPRB c) The High Court d) The Director of Prosecutions through a walk-in test Answer: b.
8. The experience required for the 2025 Assistant Public Prosecutor notification was: a) No experience b) One year in any court c) Three years of active practice in criminal courts in the State d) Seven years in civil courts Answer: c.
9. In the Assistant Public Prosecutor interview, the maximum marks are: a) 15 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75 Answer: b.
10. Section 18 of the BNSS requires a district Public Prosecutor to have been in practice as an advocate for at least: a) Three years b) Five years c) Seven years d) Ten years Answer: c.
Frequently asked questions
Is a Civil Judge notification open now? Yes, as on 7 October 2026: Notification 118/2026-RC, with applications until 26 October 2026 at 11:59 PM, per the High Court's recruitment page.
Do I need three years of practice to apply in 2026? The notification does not ask for a practice certificate. It cites the Bhumika Trust judgment and accepts law graduates who obtained the law degree one year before the notification date. The practice condition returns, reduced to one year of actual practice, for the period from 1 April 2027, according to the judgment copy and legal-news summaries.
Is the screening test a negative marking test? The notification, as read, does not mention negative marking for the screening test. Check the hall ticket and the High Court's instructions.
Is Telugu compulsory? Paper III includes translation between English and Telugu, and a candidate must clear it. Other answers are in English.
Can a practising advocate and a fresh graduate both apply? Yes. Both are direct recruitment candidates under the 2026 notification, subject to the degree-date condition.
Is there an open Assistant Public Prosecutor notification? No notification was found on the SLPRB site on 7 October 2026. The last cycle's selection list was published on 23 December 2025.
Where do district Public Prosecutors come from? They are appointed by the State Government from a panel prepared by the District Magistrate with the Sessions Judge, as provided in Section 18 of the BNSS. There is no competitive examination for those appointments.
What happens after I am selected as a Civil Judge? You are appointed as a Trainee Judicial Officer, trained for one year at the Judicial Academy, serve one year in a law clerkship, and are appointed to the regular post only after a satisfactory evaluation.
Related reading
- Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026
- AP High Court assistant guide
- AP Police Sub Inspector guide
- Government jobs after a degree in Andhra Pradesh
- Age limit relaxation in AP government exams
- Local status and reservation roster
- AP job calendar 2026
- Telugu version of this guide
Practise on Pareeksha.in
When the syllabus is mapped, write timed objective tests and review each wrong answer by naming the section. Pareeksha.in offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks; start with a mock test for the general and language parts, and keep the statute reading and descriptive practice as a separate daily habit.
Sources and verification
Opened and read for this guide, official sources first:
- High Court of Andhra Pradesh, recruitment page (aphc.gov.in), showing Notification 118/2026, the District Judge notifications dated 30 September 2026, the Civil Judge (Senior Division) listing dated 17 September 2026 and the appointment order G.O.Ms.No.157 dated 27 August 2026.
- High Court of Andhra Pradesh, Notification No. 118/2026-RC dated 25.09.2026 (12 pages, read in full).
- High Court of Andhra Pradesh, notifications page for 2026, showing the basic training nomination for the newly appointed Civil Judges.
- Government of Andhra Pradesh, General Administration (SC.F) Department, Notification No. 364/2026 dated 30.09.2026 for District Judge (Entry Level), first four pages.
- State Level Police Recruitment Board, Andhra Pradesh, home page (slprb.ap.gov.in), Notification Rc.No.115/SLPRB/Rect.1/2025 dated 04.08.2025 (pages 1 to 13 read), the amendment dated 05.08.2025 (first two pages) and the press release dated 23.12.2025.
- Judgment copy and legal-news summaries of the Supreme Court's 21 August 2026 decision in Bhumika Trust v. Union of India (an online judgment library and a legal news site), and a legal-observer summary of the 20 May 2025 judgment. These are secondary copies.
- Text of Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 from a statute reproduction site, and an online copy of the Andhra Pradesh State Prosecution Service Rules, 1992 on a legal database.
Not verified: the text of the Andhra Pradesh State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026 and its notifying order; the Supreme Court's own published text of either judgment; which notification produced the 41 appointments of August 2026 and whether the three-year rule applied to it; the screening test date and any negative marking; the latest amended percentages and service years in the Prosecution Service Rules; and why the 2025 Assistant Public Prosecutor selection list had 10 names against 42 posts. Check the High Court and SLPRB pages for amendments before you rely on any figure here.
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