AP Police Constable Previous Papers and Cut-off Trend: Section-wise Analysis, Official 2022 Cut-offs

A candidate preparing for the AP Police Constable exam usually has a pile of books and no answer to one plain question: "In the actual exam, how many questions come from each section?" This article answers that question with numbers. We took six previous constable question papers that we have digitised, assigned every question to a section and counted. Alongside that, we bring together in one place the unit-wise cut-off marks of the 2022 cycle officially published by the State Level Police Recruitment Board (SLPRB), the exam pattern from the 2026 notification, the qualifying marks and the physical test standards.

The sources are of two kinds. The exam pattern, qualifying marks and PMT/PET details come from SLPRB notification Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026 dated 16-09-2026. The cut-off marks come from the "Revised CutOff - Civil" document (08-08-2025) on the SLPRB website, which relates to the PC Civil posts of the Rc.161/2022 cycle. The section-wise counts come from our own digitised question data. For the full notification details, read the AP Police Constable guide; for the latest 2026 position, read the AP Police recruitment 2026 update.

At a glance

This information is as of 8 October 2026.

• 2026 notification: Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026, 16-09-2026. SCT PC (Civil) 542, SCT PC (AR) 285, Firemen 158, Warder (Men) 150, Warder (Women) 21, a total of 1,156 provisional vacancies.
• Application and exam dates: not yet announced; they will be communicated separately through a press release.
• Prelims: 200 questions, 200 marks, 3 hours, OMR, English/Telugu/Urdu.
• Qualifying marks: OC (including EWS) 40%, BC 35%, SC/ST 30%.
• Negative marking: there is no negative marking clause in the notification.
• Final written examination: 200 questions, 3 hours; graded out of 200 marks for Civil and out of 100 marks for AR.
• Official 2022-cycle cut-off (PC Civil, out of 200): OC General 138 to 155 (depending on the unit).
• Previous-paper averages: English 30, History about 32, General Science about 31, Arithmetic about 23, Reasoning about 22, Current Affairs about 21 (out of 200).

1. Exam pattern: what the 2026 notification says

Constable selection happens in five stages: (A) the preliminary written test, (B) the PMT (physical measurements), (C) the PET (physical efficiency test), (D) the final written examination and (E) the final selection.

Stage	Questions	Marks	Time	Key point
Preliminary written test	200	200	3 hours	Qualifying only; marks do not count towards final selection
PMT	–	–	–	Height, chest/weight measurements; digital measurement
PET	–	Qualifying for Civil; 100 marks for AR	–	Electronic timing; no re-test
Final written examination	200	Civil 200, AR 100	3 hours	Civil merit rests on this alone

Both written tests share the same syllabus (Annexure II, "Intermediate standard"):

1. English
2. Arithmetic (SSC standard)
3. Test of Reasoning / Mental Ability
4. General Science
5. Indian History, Indian Culture and the Indian National Movement
6. Indian Geography, Polity and Economy
7. Current events of national and international importance

One important detail: even in the Telugu and Urdu question papers, the English section questions are in English. Telugu-medium candidates cannot leave this section aside.

The notification lists the syllabus under seven headings but does not say how many questions each heading carries. That is exactly why an analysis of previous question papers is needed.

2. Which question papers we analysed

Our data holds eight files of AP Police Constable question papers (1,600 questions in all). When we compared them against each other, two files turned out to be copies of other papers: of the 200 questions in the file labelled "2016 P2", 132 matched the 2018 Prelims, and 163 questions in the file labelled "2019" matched the 2018 Mains. Since they are not separate papers, we removed them from the counts. The remaining six distinct question papers are these:

Code	Question paper	Questions
P1	AP Police Constable 2013	200
P2	AP Police Constable Prelims 2016 (Set S2)	200
P3	AP Constable Prelims 2018	200
P4	AP Constable Mains (final written examination) 2018	200
P5	AP Police Constable Prelims (Booklet A; the year is not printed on our copy)	200
P6	AP Police Constable Mains (final written examination) 2025	200

How we assigned sections: every question was given one section tag based on its subject matter. Where the question papers carried printed section headings, we followed them; where they did not, we decided from the content of the question. A few questions sitting on the border between History and Polity, or between Geography and Economy, could move from one section to the other. So treat a difference of two or three questions per section as normal. The trend itself is clearly visible.

3. Section-wise question count: six papers

Section	P1 2013	P2 2016	P3 2018 Pre	P4 2018 Mains	P5 Booklet A	P6 2025 Mains
English	20	30	30	30	30	30
Arithmetic	33	20	27	25	20	24
Reasoning / Mental Ability	46	25	18	20	25	21
General Science	27	32	30	30	30	31
History (Indian, Culture, National Movement)	26	27	35	31	34	35
Geography	13	12	12	13	10	10
Polity	9	14	13	17	15	15
Economy	4	9	9	9	10	9
Current Affairs	18	4	25	25	25	24
Other / Static GK	4	27	1	0	1	1
Total	200	200	200	200	200	200

How to read this table

Before you look at the figures, keep one thing in mind: every column is one complete paper, and every column adds up to exactly 200. So if a number rises in one section, it has to fall in another. Watching which sections move together tells you something about how the Board thinks. For example, in the papers where Arithmetic went up, Reasoning came down; the sum of the two stayed roughly the same.

• The 2013 paper is a different animal. It has Reasoning 46, Arithmetic 33 and English only 20. In every paper after it, English is a steady 30. That means the 2013 paper belongs to an older pattern; you can practise it for question style, but do not use it as the basis for weightage.
• The 2016 paper has "Other" at 27. These are general knowledge questions that do not fit neatly into any one section: Telugu author-and-work pairs, firsts in the world, awards, sports, film awards and the like. In the same paper, Current Affairs is only 4. Put the two together and you get 31, a little more than the Current Affairs count in the other papers (about 25). In other words, that year the Board asked more static GK than current events.
• The structure settled from 2018 onwards. In all four of P3, P4, P5 and P6, English is 30, General Science 30–31, Current Affairs 24–25 and History 31–35. This stability is the foundation of your plan.

4. Average weightage: five papers from 2016 to 2025

Setting the 2013 paper aside, we averaged the remaining five papers (P2 to P6).

Section	Average questions (out of 200)	Share	Min–max
History	32.4	16.2%	27–35
General Science	30.6	15.3%	30–32
English	30.0	15.0%	30–30
Arithmetic	23.2	11.6%	20–27
Reasoning	21.8	10.9%	18–25
Current Affairs	20.6	10.3%	4–25
Polity	14.8	7.4%	13–17
Geography	11.4	5.7%	10–13
Economy	9.2	4.6%	9–10
Other / Static GK	6.0	3.0%	0–27
Total	200	100%

Grouped by the syllabus headings

To compare against the seven headings in the notification, let us merge a few rows.

Notification heading	Average questions	Approximate share
Arithmetic + Reasoning	45	22.5%
Indian History, Culture, National Movement	32	16%
Geography + Polity + Economy	35	17.5%
General Science	31	15.5%
English	30	15%
Current Affairs + Static GK	27	13.5%

The big message here: no single heading exceeds 23%, and none falls below 13%. The constable exam favours a candidate who is "balanced across all subjects" over one who is "an expert in one subject". Drop a heading entirely and you give away 26 to 45 questions, which is to say your chance of crossing the cut-off.

5. Section-by-section observations

English (a constant 30)

Exactly 30 questions in every paper since 2016. This is the most predictable section of all. Synonyms, antonyms, spotting the error in a sentence, fill in the blanks and passage questions are the usual forms. Telugu-medium candidates may find it intimidating, but the level of the questions stays at Intermediate standard. Thirty minutes a day for four months is enough to make 20-plus out of 30 a realistic score.

General Science (about 31)

Basic concepts from Physics, Chemistry and Biology and their everyday applications. Mendelian ratios, uses of electromagnetic waves, body systems and diseases appear often. The 2025 Mains also carried slightly deeper Biology questions, such as animal classification and pairs of excretory organs. For details, see the notes on General Science: Biology and Physics and Chemistry.

History (about 32, rising trend)

27 in 2016, 35 in the 2018 Prelims, 35 in the 2025 Mains. This is the section that has given the most questions across the previous papers. Ancient India (the Vedic period, the Mauryas), the Andhra dynasties (Satavahanas, Vishnukundins, Kakatiyas), Mughal administration and the national movement all appear. We counted Andhra history questions in this section too. Start with the Indian History notes.

Arithmetic and Reasoning (about 45 combined)

The sum of the two sits steadily around 45, but the split between them moves: in the 2018 Prelims, Arithmetic 27 and Reasoning 18; in Booklet A, 20 and 25. So prepare for the two together as a single "numerical block". Percentages, ratio, speed and distance, area, coding-decoding, blood relations and series appear frequently. For shortcuts, see Reasoning and Arithmetic shortcuts.

Current Affairs (about 25, except 2016)

A steady 24–25 since 2018. This section draws on the events of the 12 to 18 months before the exam. It is better to start monthly notes now rather than from the day the notification arrives. See how to study AP Current Affairs.

Polity, Geography and Economy (about 35 combined)

Polity 13–17, Geography 10–13, Economy 9–10. Together, these three carry the same weight as History. Economy is the smallest, but it consistently brings 9 questions; the RBI, banking, the Five-Year Plans and budget terms are enough. In Geography, the AP questions (the hottest place, caves, rivers) deserve attention.

6. Official cut-off marks of the 2022 cycle

Now the other crucial question: "How many marks does it take to get selected?" SLPRB published the final unit-wise cut-offs for PC Civil posts in the 2022 cycle (Rc.161/2022); the revised list is dated 08-08-2025. These marks are out of the 200 marks of the final written examination.

Category (General)	Cut-off range (out of 200)	Note
OC General	138 – 155	Srikakulam unit 155 (the highest); Chittoor and Kadapa units 138
OC Women	134 – 141
BC-A General	120 – 149
BC-B General	110 – 144
BC-D General	123 – 154
SC General	about 117 – 138
ST General	about 112 – 121

Source: SLPRB, "Revised CutOff - Civil" (08-08-2025), under the PC_DEPT_LIST section of slprb.ap.gov.in.

What these cut-offs tell you

• Qualifying marks and cut-off are two different things. An OC candidate needs 40%, that is 80 marks, to qualify in the final written examination. But to be selected in 2022, it took 138 to 155 depending on the unit. The gap between the qualifying mark and the selection mark is roughly 60 to 75 marks.
• A 17-mark spread across units. Within OC General, Srikakulam stood at 155 and Chittoor/Kadapa at 138. The number of vacancies and the number of applicants differing from unit to unit is probably the reason. The unit depends on your local status, so it is not something you choose, but knowing the past cut-off of your unit helps you fix a target.
• Competition is stiff in the reserved categories too. The BC-D General maximum of 154 is almost equal to the OC maximum. Assuming that "reservation means fewer marks will do" is risky in some units.

An honest note about the word "trend"

Although the title of this article says "cut-off trend", we have an officially verified cut-off table for only one cycle (2022). Because we have not verified the cut-offs of earlier cycles from official documents, we are not saying "it went up" or "it went down" year on year. Do not trust the old cut-off figures that float around on websites without an official source. In this article, "trend" means two things: the stability visible in the structure of the question papers since 2018, and the unit-wise variation that the 2022 cut-offs reveal.

How to set your target score

A simple rule based on the 2022 figures: aim at least 10 marks above the previous cut-off for your category and unit. For an OC General candidate that means roughly 150 to 165. This is not a guarantee; the vacancies, the competition and the difficulty of the paper can all change in 2026. But it is the right direction for breaking out of the illusion that "80 is enough".

7. Putting the two analyses together: how 150+ becomes possible

Let us combine the average weightage from the previous papers with a target of 150 and build a section-wise target table. This is only an example.

Section	Average questions	Target	Target share
English	30	22	73%
Arithmetic + Reasoning	45	38	84%
General Science	31	23	74%
History	32	25	78%
Polity + Geography + Economy	35	26	74%
Current Affairs + GK	27	18	67%
Total	200	152	76%

The thing to notice in this table is that the numerical block (Arithmetic + Reasoning) carries the highest target percentage. That is because practice there produces a certain answer; it does not rest on memory. Current Affairs carries the most uncertainty, so its target is lower. Adjust these numbers to your own strengths, but make sure the total does not drop below 150.

No negative marking: what it means

Under the "allotment of marks" clause in the 2026 notification, a question earns the full mark when exactly one bubble is filled for the correct answer, and zero when none is filled. There is no clause in the notification deducting marks for a wrong answer. So do not leave any question blank. Even for a question you do not know, eliminate two options and mark one of the remaining two. Leave 20 of the 200 questions blank and you throw away, on average, 5 to 10 marks for nothing, and looking at the 2022 cut-offs, even 5 marks can be the difference between selection and rejection. One caution: if you fill more than one bubble, that question earns no mark.

8. Qualifying marks: what 40/35/30 means in marks

Category	Percentage	Prelims (out of 200)	Final written, Civil (out of 200)	Final written, AR (out of 100)
OC (including EWS)	40%	80	80	40
BC	35%	70	70	35
SC / ST	30%	60	60	30

Special categories (ex-servicemen, home guards and so on) must qualify at the percentage of their own social category. Remember: prelims marks are not considered for final selection. The prelims is only the doorway to the PMT/PET. Even so, do not take the prelims lightly; if you fail to qualify, the remaining stages do not exist for you.

9. PMT: physical measurement standards

Candidates	Height	Chest / weight
Men (codes 21, 22, 42, 53)	Not less than 167.6 cm	Chest not less than 86.3 cm, with a minimum 5 cm expansion
Women (codes 21, 22, 54)	Not less than 152.5 cm	Weight not less than 40 kg
ST men from agency areas	Not less than 160 cm	Chest 80 cm, expansion 3 cm
ST women from agency areas	Not less than 150 cm	Weight not less than 38 kg

The districts where the agency relaxation applies are given in the notification: ST candidates who are aboriginal residents of the agency areas of Vizianagaram, Anakapalli, Polavaram, Alluri Sitharama Raju, Eluru and Parvathipuram Manyam districts. Measurements are taken digitally.

10. PET: physical efficiency test

For Civil, Fireman and Warder posts, the PET is qualifying only. You must qualify in the 1600 metre run without fail, and along with it in either the 100 metre run or the long jump.

Event	General	Ex-servicemen	Women
1600 m run	8 minutes	9 minutes 30 seconds	10 minutes 30 seconds
100 m run	15 seconds	16.5 seconds	18 seconds
Long jump	3.80 m	3.65 m	2.75 m

Specific to AR (code 22): all three events are compulsory, carrying 100 marks in total (40/30/30) according to the gradation tables in the annexure of the notification. AR final selection = final written examination 100 + PET 100 = 200. So for an AR candidate, every second in the runs and every centimetre in the jump counts towards merit.

Timing is electronic; spikes are not allowed; there is no re-test. For the physical preparation details, see the PMT/PET preparation guide.

11. Final selection and local cadre

Final selection for Civil (code 21) rests solely on the merit of the 200 marks of the final written examination. The local cadre rule applies under the Andhra Pradesh Presidential Order 2025: as per G.O.Ms.No.172 GA (Ser.D) dated 02-09-2026, the first 5% is open (to both locals and non-locals), and the remaining 95% is for locals only. For local status, see AP local status and reservation roster.

Compared with the 2022 cycle, the exam structure (200-question prelims → PMT/PET → 200-question final examination) has not changed. What is new: the local cadre system under the 2025 Presidential Order (95% for locals), SC sub-classification, digital PMT, electronic PET timing and the explicit "no re-test" clause.

12. How to practise with previous papers

1. Do one paper untimed first. You will learn your current level and the style of the questions.
2. Write down every mistake section-wise. Build your own section table, like the one above.
3. Give priority to the post-2018 papers. P3 to P6 for weightage; P1 and P2 too for style.
4. Full papers within 3 hours. 180 minutes for 200 questions, which is 54 seconds per question. Finish English and GK quickly and keep more time for the numerical questions.
5. The analysis is the real practice. At least an hour of analysis after every full paper.

A 90-day section-wise practice plan

Days	Main focus	Daily non-negotiables
1 – 20	History and General Science fundamentals	30 numerical questions + 20 English questions
21 – 40	Polity, Geography, Economy	The same + Current Affairs notes
41 – 60	Weak sections, previous papers P1 and P2	The same
61 – 80	Previous papers P3 to P6, one full paper every two days	Analysis, error diary
81 – 90	Full mocks, revision	Keep up the physical training

Do not postpone physical training until after the written test. The time between the prelims results and the PMT/PET may be short; running capacity comes in months, not weeks.

13. Question forms seen in the previous papers

Along with the section-wise counts, it is also important to know in what form a question arrives. These are the main forms we noticed across the six papers.

Form	Where it is common	Example pattern	How to handle it
Direct factual question	History, Science, Economy	"When was the RBI established?"	Build tables of years and names and revise them
Match the following	Current Affairs, GK, literature	Days and themes, authors and works	Start from the one pair you know for certain and eliminate options
Incorrectly matched pair	Science, History	Animal groups and excretory organs, Mughal posts and duties	Check each pair separately
Calculation-based question	Arithmetic	Speed and distance, percentage, area	Formulas and shortcuts; work backwards from the options
Coding and relations	Reasoning	Word codes, blood relations	Draw a small diagram or table
Grammar and vocabulary question	English	Synonym, error in a sentence	Daily practice of words and rules

What this table shows is that although the constable exam has plenty of "one-word answer" questions, it also has matching and incorrectly-matched-pair questions. In those, you need to know four facts to answer one question. That is why, when you study a topic, remember not one fact but four or five related facts about it together.

14. Time management on exam day

You have 180 minutes for 200 questions. Not every question takes the same time, so fix a clear order. This is only a sample; test it in your mock exams and adjust it to suit you.

Order	Block	Questions (approx.)	Time allotted
1	Current Affairs, GK	27	15 minutes
2	History, Polity, Geography, Economy	67	40 minutes
3	General Science	31	20 minutes
4	English	30	25 minutes
5	Arithmetic, Reasoning	45	60 minutes
6	Remaining questions, OMR check	–	20 minutes

Finishing the memory-based blocks first means the questions you know get answered quickly, and you are left with more time to work through the numerical questions calmly. Get into the habit of filling the OMR bubbles after every 25 questions; filling them all at the end in a hurry risks shifting a whole row. Since there is no negative marking clause, in the last ten minutes mark some answer for every question still blank.

15. Mistakes candidates commonly make

1. Thinking "80 is enough". That is merely the qualifying mark. In 2022, OC General selection needed 138 to 155.
2. Giving up on English. 30 questions, that is 15% of the whole paper. Even in the Telugu version they come in English.
3. Planning on the basis of the 2013 paper. That paper had Reasoning 46; the later papers have only 18 to 25.
4. Leaving Current Affairs to the last month. A steady 24–25 questions since 2018; a year's events cannot be read in a month.
5. Postponing physical training. The time for the PMT/PET after the prelims may be short; there is no re-test.
6. Trusting unofficial cut-offs. Do not set a target on figures that have no official document behind them.
7. Filling more than one bubble. Such a question earns no mark.

16. A daily routine for those preparing alongside a job or studies

Many constable aspirants prepare while studying for a degree or doing a small job. For those who get only four hours a day, here is a sample routine built on the weightage above.

Time	Task	Why
Morning, 45 minutes	Running, exercise	For the PET; since there is no re-test, continuous training is needed
Morning, 60 minutes	Arithmetic, Reasoning (30 questions)	A combined block of about 45 questions; the mind is fresh in the morning
Evening, 60 minutes	One History or Science topic + 20 questions	The two sections with the highest weightage
Night, 30 minutes	English (15 questions, new words)	A fixed section of 30 questions
Night, 25 minutes	Current Affairs notes	Only a daily habit makes 25 questions possible

One day a week (Sunday, for example), replace this routine with a full previous paper or a mock, and spend the rest of the day analysing it. For Polity, Geography and Economy, set aside two evenings a week in place of History/Science. Follow this steadily for four months and every section gets time in proportion to its weightage, while the physical training never stops.

One last suggestion: write your mock scores in a notebook with the date, and next to them write the 2022 cut-off for your unit and category. Every week, check whether the distance between those two numbers is shrinking. If it is not, find the section where the marks have stalled and give that section extra time the following week.

17. Ten questions from the previous papers

These questions are taken directly from the six question papers above. The source paper is given in brackets.

1. In Mendel's monohybrid cross, the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation is (Booklet A, General Science) A) 3:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:0 D) 1:2:1

2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established? (2013, Economy) A) 1934 B) 1935 C) 1937 D) 1950

3. When did the British Prime Minister Attlee announce the 'Cabinet Mission Plan'? (2018 Prelims, History) A) 1942 B) 1946 C) 1943 D) 1944

4. Which of the following Satavahana rulers defeated the Saka king Nahapana? (2025 Mains, History) A) Srimukha B) Satakarni I C) Gautamiputra Satakarni D) Yajnasri Satakarni

5. A thief steals a car at 1 pm and drives it along the highway at 60 km per hour. The theft is noticed at 2 pm, and the police immediately chase him on a bike at 80 km per hour. When will the police catch up with the thief? (2013, Arithmetic) A) 3.30 pm B) 4 pm C) 5 pm D) 6 pm

6. A student must secure 40% of the total marks to pass an examination. He scored 220 marks and failed by 80 marks. What is the total marks of the examination? (2013, Arithmetic) A) 800 B) 750 C) 700 D) 900

7. The area of a rhombus is 384 sq cm. If one of its diagonals is 32 cm long, what is the length of the other diagonal (in cm)? (2013, Arithmetic) A) 24 B) 36 C) 18 D) 48

8. If "ski rps tri" means "Nice Sunday morning", "teh sti rps" means "Every Tuesday morning" and "ski ptr qlm" means "Nice market place", which word stands for Sunday? (2016, Reasoning) A) ski B) rps C) tri D) qlm

9. In which list of the Seventh Schedule does the subject of local government appear? (2016, Polity) A) Union List B) State List C) Concurrent List D) Residuary subjects

10. Which is the hottest place in Andhra Pradesh? (2018 Mains, Geography) A) Vijayawada B) Kadapa C) Rentachintala D) Guntur

Answers

Question	Answer	Explanation
1	D	In F2, the genotypes are TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1; the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.
2	B	The RBI Act came in 1934; the Bank began operations on 1 April 1935.
3	B	The Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946.
4	C	According to the Nasik inscription, Gautamiputra Satakarni defeated Nahapana of the Kshaharata line.
5	C	At 2 pm the thief is 60 km ahead; relative speed 20 km/h; 60 ÷ 20 = 3 hours; 2 + 3 = 5 pm.
6	B	Pass marks = 220 + 80 = 300 = 40%; total = 300 ÷ 0.4 = 750.
7	A	Area = (d1 × d2) ÷ 2; 384 × 2 ÷ 32 = 24.
8	C	ski = Nice, rps = morning (common to two sentences); the remaining tri = Sunday.
9	B	Local government is a State List subject in the Seventh Schedule.
10	C	Rentachintala in the Palnadu region is known for the highest temperatures in the state.

Frequently asked questions

1. Is there negative marking in the AP Constable exam? The 2026 notification (Rc.91/2026) has no clause deducting marks for a wrong answer. A single correct bubble earns the full mark, and no bubble earns zero. So answer every question; do not fill more than one bubble.

2. Which section brings the most questions? By the average of the five papers from 2016 to 2025: History (about 32), General Science (about 31) and English (30). Arithmetic and Reasoning together come to about 45.

3. What was the 2022 cut-off? According to the SLPRB official revised list (08-08-2025), the PC Civil OC General cut-off ranged from 138 to 155 out of 200 depending on the unit. The ranges for other categories are in the table above.

4. Do prelims marks count in the final selection? No. The prelims is qualifying only. Civil final selection rests on the 200 marks of the final written examination; for AR it is final written 100 + PET 100.

5. When is the 2026 exam date? Not announced as of 8 October 2026. The notification says the application and prelims dates will be announced through a press release. Keep watching slprb.ap.gov.in.

6. Can I write the exam in Telugu? Yes. The question paper is in English, Telugu and Urdu. However, the English section questions are in English in all versions.

7. Should I practise the 2013 paper? You can, for the style of the questions. But its section split (Reasoning 46, English 20) differs from the later papers, so base your weightage on the post-2018 papers.

8. Does this analysis apply to the AR (Armed Reserve) constable post? Since the written test syllabus and the number of questions (200) are the same, the section-wise weightage is useful to AR candidates too. The difference is that the AR final written examination is graded out of 100 marks, and the PET's 100 marks join the merit. The cut-off table in this article is for PC Civil only; we have not given the AR cut-off here. So AR candidates should give the running and jumping practice as much time as the written test, because every mark earned there directly changes the rank.

Related reading

• AP Police Constable complete guide
• AP Police recruitment 2026 update
• PMT/PET physical test preparation
• Constable vs SI
• Constable salary and job profile
• Reasoning and Arithmetic shortcuts
• AP Police Constable previous papers and cut-off trend in Telugu
• Andhra Pradesh state guide: history, geography, government and every AP exam

Check where you stand now

Once you know the weightage of the previous papers and the cut-off, what remains is finding out where you stand. Take the free AP mini-mock and see which section is costing you marks. Compare that result with the target table above and adjust your 90-day plan. For full-length mocks, see the online test series. For official dates, vacancies and corrigenda, rely only on slprb.ap.gov.in. Once the new question paper (the 2026 Prelims) is released, we will analyse it the same way and update these tables. Until then, use the average figures above as the foundation of your plan, but remember that each section can vary by two or three questions.