15 Common Mistakes First-Time AP Government Exam Candidates Make, and the Official Rule Behind Each

A first-time candidate for an Andhra Pradesh government exam usually fails for reasons that have little to do with intelligence. The application is rejected for a date that was misread. A certificate is the wrong year. A profile entry does not match the school record. A mock test is never taken, or taken and never analysed. A language paper is treated as an afterthought. These are avoidable errors, and almost every one of them is governed by a printed rule that a candidate could have read in an hour.

This guide lists fifteen such mistakes. For each, it states the mistake, the official rule or notification wording behind it, and a practical fix. The rules are taken from our sibling guides, which were written from the Commission's and the Board's own documents, and each is linked so that you can read the full context. Where the rule comes from one notification, the guide says so, because a rule in one notification is not automatically a rule in the next. Anything time-sensitive carries "As on October 2026". The guide does not predict whether any person will be shortlisted or selected; it only shows where applications and preparation commonly go wrong.

The main sibling guides used are the APPSC OTR registration guide, the guide to local status, reservation and roster, the age limit and relaxation guide and the guide to negative marking, time management and mock strategy.

Mistake 1: Applying without reading the Detailed Notification

The commonest mistake is to act on a summary: a social media post, a video, a friend's message or a news item. Summaries drop details, and many of them repeat the numbers of an older cycle.

The rule behind it is stated in the Commission's own documents. The Commission's FAQ, as described in our OTR guide, says that qualifications and age are determined by the State and Subordinate Service Rules and the special rules of each service, not by the Commission's discretion, and that the Commission issues a notification only for the number of posts the departments indent. In other words, the notification is the only document that tells you what applies to your post and cycle. Our guide to the Group-II scheme makes the same point from the other side: as on October 2026, it did not find a new Group-II notification on the Commission's home page, and it says that you should not treat any date from a social media post as real until it appears on psc.ap.gov.in. The DSC SGT guide similarly says that, as on October 2026, an official DSC 2026 notification had not appeared on the department's portals, and that press reports of an expected date are reports, not orders.

The fix is a habit. Open the notification, not the summary. Read the paragraph on eligibility, the scheme of examination, the fee, the certificates and the last date. Read the notes at the end, because exceptions are often there. Print or save the document, and put its number and date on the first page of your application folder.

Mistake 2: Misreading the age rule and its reference date

The second mistake is to ask "what is the age limit?" and to accept a single number. The age limit depends on the post, on your category, and on a reference date fixed by the notification. Our age-limit guide states the three dates that candidates confuse: the age reckoning date, which decides whether your age is within the limit; the qualification date, which decides whether you hold the required degree; and the last date to apply, which is only a deadline.

The rule is printed in each notification. For the SLPRB notification of 16 September 2026, the reckoning date is 1 July 2026, and the age for Constable (Civil and AR) is 18 or above and below 24. A candidate born on 1 July 2002 has already turned 24 on that date and is outside the general limit, while a candidate born on 2 July 2002 is within it, a difference of one day. The notification itself warns that the online form does not validate age. By contrast, the teacher notification of Mega DSC 2025 counted age on 1 July 2024, and its general limit was 44, with 49 for reserved categories and 54 for persons with disabilities. The two examples show that the date can change from one notification to another.

There is a second trap: assuming the base limit of 44 years, which the government orders of 14 September 2026 set for non-uniformed posts, applies to everything. Our guide records that the order excludes uniformed posts in the police, excise, fire, prisons, forest and transport services, and that those posts follow their special rules. Another is assuming that a delay in the examination ages you out. Because the reckoning date is fixed, it does not.

The fix is the four-step method in the age guide: find the reckoning date, compute your age on that date in years, months and days, apply your concession, and compare the result with the exact wording of the limit. If you are near the edge, write to the recruiting body before paying the fee, as the SLPRB notification itself says the candidate must satisfy himself or herself about age eligibility.

Mistake 3: Confusing the qualification date and the required marks

Candidates assume that a degree "in progress" or a certificate to be issued later will do. Notifications ask for the qualification to be held on a stated date, and they state minimum marks.

For the SLPRB Constable notification, as summarised in our Police Constable guide, Intermediate or an equivalent recognised by the State Government must be held as on 1 July 2026, and the burden of proving that a certificate is recognised lies on the candidate. SC and ST candidates have a concession: they need SSC or equivalent and must have studied Intermediate and appeared for both the first-year and second-year examinations. For DSC SGT in the Mega DSC 2025 bulletin, the candidate needed Intermediate with at least 50 percent marks (45 percent for SC, ST, BC and persons with benchmark disabilities) plus a recognised two-year elementary education diploma or an equivalent, and had to hold a TET or CTET score. Treating SGT as a graduate post, or TET as an optional extra, appears in our SGT guide among the common errors. The TET score supplies 20 of the 100 merit marks, and only scores at or above 90 (OC and EWS), 75 (BC) or 60 (SC, ST and others) out of 150 were considered.

The fix is to prepare a one-page eligibility sheet: the qualification required, the date by which it must be held, the minimum marks, your own values, and the certificate that proves each. If any line is not met, do not apply and hope. Plan the missing step, such as TET, first.

Mistake 4: Choosing or claiming local status without reading the rule

Local status decides which share of posts you compete for. As on October 2026, the Presidential Order of 2025, republished through G.O.Ms.No.45 of 20 April 2026, reserves 95 percent of direct recruitment posts for local candidates, with at least one post left open, as the Commission's Notification 07/2026 prints it. Our local-status guide and the OTPR update guide set out how the Commission's notification defines a local candidate: a candidate who studied for not less than four consecutive academic years before and including the year of the seventh class examination in an area is local to it, with residence used if the candidate studied in no institution in those years, and a seven-year rule as a fallback.

Several traps follow. A residence certificate is not accepted from a candidate who studied in a recognised institution up to class seven, who must produce study certificates. A residence certificate, where it applies, must come from a revenue officer not below the rank of Mandal Revenue Officer in independent charge of a Mandal, and a candidate who lived in more than one mandal needs separate certificates. Candidates who moved from Telangana between 2 June 2014 and 1 June 2024 need a Local Status Certificate under G.O.Ms.No.161 of 27 December 2022. A candidate cannot choose a district to look local, and the Commission's notification and the 29 September 2026 web note warn that a false declaration makes the candidature liable to rejection.

The fix is the worksheet from the OTPR guides. List each year of study from class one to class seven with the school, village, mandal and district, from certificates, not memory. Decide the cadre level of the post, since a district cadre and a zonal cadre can give different results for the same facts. Never claim a status that the documents do not support.

Mistake 5: Errors in the OTPR, the profile every APPSC application starts from

The One Time Profile Registration is the foundation of every APPSC application, and it is the source of the most avoidable mistakes. The Commission's FAQ says the Commission does not verify the information at registration and that the candidate is responsible for errors or falsehoods. The user manual says the particulars furnished are treated as final and that data is processed on those particulars only.

Common errors, each of which our OTR guide lists: a name or date of birth that differs from the SSC memorandum; a wrong mobile number or email, so that the OTP and reference ID never arrive; submitting without using Preview; not saving the reference ID, which begins with the letters AP; and stopping after the reference ID without completing Sign Up and setting a password, so that on the day a notification appears there is no login. A further trap is the timing rule: the notifications state that the data displayed from the OTPR at the time of submitting the application is considered for that notification, and changes made later are not considered.

There is also a recent change. The Commission's web note dated 29 September 2026 asks all applicants to update their OTPR from 30 September 2026, before applying for any recruitment notification, because district, zone and multi-zone are now worked out from study and residence particulars. A profile made earlier may be incomplete for this purpose.

The fix is to do the one-week plan in the OTR guide on a weekend long before any notification: collect the certificates, prepare the worksheet, register, preview twice, sign up, test the login and save the printout. If you have an older profile, log in, choose Modify, complete the schooling section and submit.

Mistake 6: Photograph and signature problems

It seems trivial, but upload failures cause real last-day panic. The OTPR user manual states that the photograph must be a JPG or JPEG below 50 KB, 3.5 cm wide and 4.5 cm high, with the candidate's name and the date on which it was taken clearly printed on the photograph, and without a cap or goggles. The signature must be a JPG or JPEG below 30 KB, 3.5 cm by 1.5 cm. The SLPRB Constable notification also asks you to upload a photograph and signature, along with certificates, in the Stage I form.

Candidates also use old photographs, or photographs without the name and date, or compress a file until it is unreadable. Our OTR guide says a mismatch in size or format is the most common reason an upload fails.

The fix is to prepare the files before you open any form, check the size in properties, view them at normal size and keep a folder with copies. Take the photograph afresh, with the name and date printed as required, and keep the print and the digital copy together.

Mistake 7: Wrong category claim, or an EWS or non-creamy-layer certificate of the wrong year

Category errors are among the costliest because they can reject an application or change a fee, and the claim often cannot be corrected later. The rule for EWS is stated in G.O.Ms.No.73 of 2021, as summarised in our local-status guide: a person is EWS if not covered by the SC, ST or Backward Class schemes and the gross annual family income is below Rs. 8 lakh from all sources for the financial year before the year of application. The family includes the candidate, parents, siblings below 18, spouse and children below 18. The certificate is issued by the Tahsildar, and the Commission's notifications say that it must be for the financial year before the year of application.

For the SLPRB Constable notification, our guide records that the NCL or EWS certificate must be dated on or after 1 April 2026. Reading the validity of one notification into another is a mistake in itself. Other rules in the same family: a Backward Class claim needs the group and a non-creamy-layer certificate; an SC claim needs the group, since the SC sub-classification is in force from April 2025; candidates of SC, ST, BC and EWS from other States are not entitled to reservation, as the notifications state; and a subsequent claim of change of community is not entertained. A candidate from an SC, ST or BC community cannot claim EWS, since EWS is a quota within the open category for those outside those schemes.

The fix is to read the certificate paragraph of the notification, check the date, the financial year and the issuing authority on each certificate, and apply for fresh certificates early, since offices can be slow. Do not apply under a category you cannot document. If you are unsure, ask the issuing office, not a friend.

Mistake 8: Fee, payment and submit-button confusion

An application is not an application until it is complete. The OTR guide describes the sequence in recent APPSC notifications: log in with the OTPR number, choose Fill Application against the notification, check the pre-filled data, fill the application-specific data, and click Save and Submit. Only Save and Submit generates the payment link, and the application counts only when the payment succeeds. The OTPR is explicitly not an application for any post.

The SLPRB Constable notification works differently, as our guide records: payment of the fee comes first, using the name, date of birth, mobile number, community and SSC hall ticket number; after payment you must press submit on the Stage I application form. A paid fee without a submitted form leads to rejection, and the fee is not refunded. Under-age or over-age applications are rejected without refund.

Another trap is the correction window. In the notifications read for our OTR guide, corrections after submission are enabled for seven days after the last date at Rs. 100 each, except for name, fee and age relaxation. Fee exemption claims, such as the white ration card details, are application-specific fields that also calculate the fee, so errors there cannot be repaired later.

The fix is to complete the whole sequence, download the application PDF and payment reference, and confirm by checking the status. Do not wait for the final day, when portals slow down. Do not pay twice in panic; check whether the first payment succeeded.

Mistake 9: Ignoring the syllabus and preparing for an older pattern

Many first-time candidates collect books and notes before they open the syllabus. Others use old notes without checking which scheme they were written for. Our Group-II guide warns that relying on the old three-paper pattern is the most expensive mistake, and it records the current 2023 scheme: a 150-mark screening test in five blocks of 30 marks, followed by two Mains papers of 150 marks each. The Group-III guide notes an older scheme with "language ability" and Urdu, absent from the later scheme. The DSC SGT guide warns against using an older paper pattern of 200 questions when the Mega DSC 2025 SGT paper had 160 questions for 80 marks.

The syllabus is also not a list of topics to read in full; it is a list of nouns to learn. The Group-II Mains guide advises reading each syllabus line as a list of names, committees, articles and policies, such as Rajamannar, Sarkaria, Punchhi, Balwant Rai Mehta and Ashok Mehta, and to learn them precisely.

The fix is to print the current syllabus document for your exam, and to make a table with every syllabus line, your notes' location, your confidence, and the date you last revised it. Anything that has no row in the table should not be on your desk.

Mistake 10: Over-reading, collecting resources and rereading

The tenth mistake is to spend months reading more books and watching more videos, and little time on practice. A summary by the Association for Psychological Science of a major review of learning techniques, by Dunlosky and colleagues, reports that practice testing and distributed practice received the highest utility ratings among ten techniques, while rereading, highlighting, underlining and summarising rated low. The lead researcher is quoted as saying that by just replacing rereading with delayed retrieval practice, students would benefit.

A second study, by Roediger and Karpicke, found that students who reread passages did better on a test five minutes later, but students who had tested themselves retained substantially more after two days and a week. The practical meaning is that rereading feels productive and produces a feeling of knowing, while self-testing produces retention.

These studies describe group results in controlled settings and do not guarantee any score. But the guidance is consistent with our guide on preparing without coaching, which advises one or two sources per subject, a fixed cycle of syllabus, earlier papers, notes, practice and revision, and a weekly test.

The fix is a cap: one main source per subject, one set of notes, and a rule that for every hour of reading there is at least 30 minutes of questions or recall. Review a topic the next day, a week later and a month later.

Mistake 11: Taking no mock tests, or taking them without analysis

A mock is the only way to see your speed and accuracy under exam conditions, and it is often postponed to "after the syllabus is complete". Our no-coaching guide advises one mock in the first month, sectional tests monthly after that and a full mock a week in the final phase. The negative-marking guide adds the analysis routine: sort each wrong answer into concept errors, careless errors and time errors, and look at the trend across four to six tests, not one score.

Another mistake is memorising a fixed paper and reading a better second attempt as progress, or reading a percentile as a promise. The sibling guides describe percentile as the share of the group scoring below you, not a percentage of marks and not a prediction of rank.

The fix is a rhythm. Take a baseline early, whatever the score. Take sectional tests every week or two. In the last two months, one full paper a week at the real time of day, with analysis taking as long as the test. Keep an error notebook with the topic and the type of each mistake.

Mistake 12: Mismanaging negative marking

Candidates either leave questions blank out of fear or guess every question out of habit. The rule, as set out in our negative-marking guide, differs by recruiting body. APPSC objective papers apply a deduction of one third of the marks for the question, under G.O.Ms.No.235 of the Finance (HR-I, Planning and Policy) Department dated 6 December 2016, as printed in notifications of September and October 2026. For a one-mark question, a wrong answer costs 0.33 marks, and an unanswered question costs nothing. The SLPRB notifications of 16 September 2026 describe full marks for a correctly darkened bubble and zero if none is darkened, but do not mention a deduction. The Mega DSC 2025 bulletin did not mention a penalty. The APTET June 2026 bulletin says there is no negative marking.

"Not mentioned" is not the same as "no penalty". The guide explains the arithmetic of guessing: at a one-third penalty, a blind guess among four options has an expected value of zero, and a guess becomes worthwhile when you can eliminate options and your accuracy among the rest exceeds 25 percent. It also warns that marks per question differ: in the SLPRB SI final papers, a question can be worth one mark or half a mark, and in Mega DSC 2025 SGT it is half a mark.

The fix is the two-score habit. In every mock, record the score without a penalty and the score with a one-third penalty, until you have read the instruction for your own paper. Use a three-tier rule for deciding what to attempt, and keep a few reserve minutes at the end.

Mistake 13: Treating the Telugu and English qualifying papers as an afterthought

Language papers are the quiet cause of failure for candidates who are strong in general studies. The rules differ by exam, and the sibling guides record each.

For APPSC Group-IV, under the scheme published on 22 February 2019 as summarised in our Group-IV guide, the Screening Test has 50 of 150 marks in English and Telugu (25 each, at SSC standard), and the Mains has 150 of 300 marks for English and Telugu (75 each). A candidate who is weak in a language can lose a quarter of the written marks. For the Forest Beat Officer notification 18/2026, there is a qualifying essay of 50 marks in 45 minutes, in English, Telugu or Urdu, on a theme relating to forests and the environment; its marks do not add to the merit total, but you must qualify. For Mega DSC 2025, the English language proficiency test for Principal, PGT and TGT posts in non-language subjects was compulsory and qualifying, with minimum marks of 60 for OC, BC and EWS and 50 for SC, ST, PH and ex-servicemen, and the marks were not counted for merit. For the SLPRB SI posts, Papers I and II are descriptive tests of English and Telugu or Urdu, qualifying in nature, with 40, 35 and 30 percent as the minimum for different categories in each paper; failing even one paper means the candidate is not considered further, however well the later papers go. For the Constable paper, the English questions stay in English even in the Telugu version, which surprises Telugu-medium candidates.

The fix is to schedule language practice from day one. Read an editorial and do five error-spotting or sentence-rearrangement questions daily for English; keep a vocabulary sheet for Telugu; and practise translation in both directions every week, since several descriptive papers include it. Check the notification to see whether the language paper is scoring, qualifying or both.

Mistake 14: Walking into document verification unprepared

Verification is where a long effort can end, and the notifications are direct about it. The OTPR guide records that, at verification, the Commission asks for study certificates, residence certificates where applicable, community certificates and other proofs, and that a false declaration at any stage can lead to rejection and, in the Commission's debarment paragraph (Para 16.1 of Notification 14/2025), to debarment from its examinations for up to five years.

Specific traps from the sibling guides include these. For SLPRB, the date of birth proof is the SSC or equivalent certificate only; horoscopes, affidavits and municipal birth extracts are not accepted. The NCL or EWS certificate must carry the date the notification requires. For the Constable PMT and PET, failure to produce documents leads to rejection, and no additional time is given. A study certificate for classes I to VII, or a Tahsildar residence certificate, is among the documents. For DSC, the certificate-verification document for Mega DSC 2025 lists the application printout, SSC and Intermediate certificates, professional qualification certificates, the TET or CTET scorecard, study certificates, a local status certificate where migration rules apply, and community, EWS and disability certificates where claimed.

The notifications also say that a candidate must produce proof of the community claimed at all stages and that a later claim to change community is not entertained.

The fix is a document file prepared months before: originals, attested copies and scans, arranged in the order of the notification's list, with a one-page index. Check each name, date of birth and spelling across all documents. If there is a mismatch, correct it at the source, such as the school or the issuing office, early; do not carry an inconsistency into verification.

Mistake 15: Exam-day, OMR and physical-test slip-ups

The last mistake is to lose marks or an entire stage on the day. Our sibling guides list several rules. For OMR papers, the answers go on the sheet with a blue or black ball point pen, and the guides list as common mistakes forgetting the booklet series, using the wrong pen and using whitener, which is banned. The Group-I notification, as summarised in the negative-marking guide, has OMR invalidation rules. For SLPRB posts, the language chosen for Papers III and IV of the SI examination is declared in the application and cannot be changed later.

For the Constable physical stage, our guide records that the events are timed electronically, spike shoes are not permitted, and once an event has been conducted its result is final, with no re-test. Participation in every prescribed event is compulsory. The medical standards include vision of 6/6, with disqualifying conditions listed in the notification, and the guide advises being examined by a Civil Surgeon before applying, because a medical disqualification after months of preparation is the costliest rejection. The PMT standards, such as a minimum height of 167.6 cm and a chest of 86.3 cm with 5 cm expansion for men, and 152.5 cm and 40 kg for women, should be checked on the first day of preparation, not the last.

The fix is a day-before checklist: hall ticket, photo identity as specified, two pens of the right colour, the route to the centre, and the instructions printed on the hall ticket. Rehearse the whole day for the physical test, including warm-up, event order and footwear, and get a medical check-up early.

A one-page checklist before you apply

Use this list as a final gate. It condenses the fifteen points.

• I have the Detailed Notification and have read the eligibility, scheme, fee and certificate paragraphs.
• I know the age reckoning date and have computed my age on that date, with my concession.
• I hold the required qualification as on the stated date, with the minimum marks, and any TET or equivalent.
• I have decided my local status from study and residence documents, not from preference.
• My OTPR matches my SSC memorandum, my login works and my profile was updated after 30 September 2026.
• My photograph and signature meet the size and format limits.
• My category certificates are of the correct financial year or date and show the group.
• I know whether payment comes before or after submission, and I will download the application PDF.
• I have the current syllabus and a table of its lines.
• I have one source per subject and a revision tracker.
• I have taken a baseline mock and I analyse every test.
• I know the negative-marking position for my paper, and I record two scores.
• I have a plan for the language papers.
• My document file is ready and consistent.
• I know the exam-day and physical-test rules for my post.

Key facts for exams

• Age is counted on the date fixed in the notification, not on the exam date; SLPRB 2026 used 1 July 2026, and Mega DSC 2025 used 1 July 2024.
• SLPRB Constable age limit: 18 or above and below 24 for civil and AR; date of birth proof is the SSC or equivalent certificate only.
• G.O.Ms.No.187 and 188 of 14 September 2026 raised the base limit for non-uniformed posts to 44, up to 30 September 2027; uniformed posts follow special rules.
• EWS: gross annual family income below Rs. 8 lakh, certificate by the Tahsildar for the financial year before the year of application.
• Local candidates share 95 percent of direct recruitment posts under the Presidential Order 2025; the study test in current Commission notifications is anchored on the seventh class year.
• OTPR is not an application; the data at the time of submission is the data considered; corrections after submission are limited and cost Rs. 100 each in the notifications read, except name, fee and age relaxation.
• APPSC objective papers: one-third negative marking, G.O.Ms.No.235 of 6 December 2016; police and DSC documents reviewed did not mention a penalty.
• False declaration can lead to rejection and, per the Commission's debarment paragraph, debarment for up to five years.
• Constable physical events have no re-test; spike shoes are not allowed.

Ten practice questions

1. On which date is age counted for the SLPRB notifications of 16 September 2026? (a) Date of the examination (b) 1 July 2026 (c) Date of application (d) 1 January 2026 Answer: (b).

2. A general candidate was born on 1 July 2002. Is the candidate within the Constable (Civil) limit as on 1 July 2026? (a) Yes (b) No, 24 has been attained (c) Yes, with a 5-year relaxation automatically (d) Only if female Answer: (b). The earliest permitted date of birth is 2 July 2002.

3. What is the income limit for EWS in employment under G.O.Ms.No.73 of 2021? (a) Rs. 2 lakh (b) Rs. 4 lakh (c) Rs. 8 lakh (d) Rs. 12 lakh Answer: (c), gross annual family income.

4. Which authority issues the EWS certificate, as the Commission's notifications describe? (a) Village Revenue Officer (b) Tahsildar (c) District Collector's PA (d) School headmaster Answer: (b).

5. A candidate who studied in a recognised institution up to class seven wishes to prove local status. What does the Commission's notification require? (a) A residence certificate (b) Study certificates (c) A ration card (d) An affidavit Answer: (b). A residence certificate is not accepted from such a candidate.

6. What does the Commission's OTPR note say about data used for an application? (a) The latest changes made after submission (b) The data displayed at the time of submission (c) The data at the time of the examination (d) No data is used Answer: (b).

7. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in APPSC objective papers, as printed in notifications? (a) None (b) One-fourth of the marks (c) One-third of the marks (d) Full marks Answer: (c).

8. In the SLPRB Constable notification, what must a candidate do after paying the fee? (a) Nothing (b) Press submit on the Stage I application form (c) Visit the office (d) Download the hall ticket Answer: (b). A paid fee without a submitted form leads to rejection.

9. In Forest Beat Officer Notification 18/2026, what is the essay paper? (a) A scoring paper of 200 marks (b) A qualifying essay of 50 marks in 45 minutes (c) Optional (d) Only in English Answer: (b). It may be written in English, Telugu or Urdu.

10. For the SLPRB Constable physical events, which statement is correct? (a) A re-test is allowed (b) Results are final once conducted, with no re-test (c) Spike shoes are required (d) Events are optional Answer: (b).

Frequently asked questions

Which of these mistakes is most common? We have no verified frequency data, so we cannot rank them. The ones that cannot be repaired later, such as age, category and local status claims, deserve the most care.

Can I correct my application after submitting? In the APPSC notifications read, corrections are enabled for seven days after the last date at Rs. 100 each, except for name, fee and age relaxation. Read the notification of your post.

Do I need a fresh EWS certificate for every notification? The Commission's notifications say the certificate must be for the financial year before the year of application, and the SLPRB Constable notification asked for a date on or after 1 April 2026. Check each notification.

Is the TET compulsory for SGT? In the Mega DSC 2025 bulletin, yes: a TET or CTET qualification was required, and it supplied 20 of the 100 merit marks. Check the 2026 notification when it is issued.

What if I find an error in my OTPR after applying? The data at the time of submission is the data considered for that notification. Correct the profile before applying; after submission, only the limited correction window applies.

Are the language papers scoring? It depends on the exam. They score in Group-IV, they qualify in the Forest Beat Officer essay and the SI Papers I and II, and in Mega DSC 2025 the English proficiency test qualified without counting for merit.

Where do I check the latest rules? On psc.ap.gov.in, slprb.ap.gov.in and the DSC portal, and in the notification of your post.

Related reading

• APPSC OTR registration guide
• APPSC OTPR update from 30.09.2026
• Local status, reservation and roster in AP government jobs
• AP age limit and relaxation guide
• Negative marking, time management and mock strategy
• AP Police Constable 2026
• AP DSC SGT
• APPSC Group-II guide
• Preparing for AP government exams while working
• Andhra Pradesh hub
• Telugu version: మొదటిసారి రాసే AP అభ్యర్థులు చేసే 15 సాధారణ తప్పులు
• Telangana state guide (same syllabus for the general-studies sections)
• Telangana government exams 2026

When your application is safely submitted, you can practise timed mock tests on pareeksha.in, which offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks, and review each error by type.

Sources and verification

Pages opened for this guide (as on October 2026):

• Association for Psychological Science, news release summarising Dunlosky and colleagues (2013), on practice testing, distributed practice, rereading and highlighting.
• Washington University in St. Louis profiles page with the abstract of Roediger and Karpicke (2006), on testing versus rereading.
• slprb.ap.gov.in and psc.ap.gov.in home pages (opened; they did not display the text of the 2026 notifications, so the rules below come from the sibling guides).
• Rules and notification wording are taken from our sibling guides, which were written from APPSC Notifications 07/2026, 14/2025, 16/2023, 18/2026 and 11/2023 materials, the APPSC OTPR user manual, FAQ and web note of 29 September 2026, SLPRB Rc.No.81 and Rc.No.91/SLPRB/Rect.2/2026 of 16 September 2026, the Mega DSC 2025 notification and bulletin, G.O.Ms.No.73 of 2021, G.O.Ms.No.187 and 188 of 14 September 2026, G.O.Ms.No.45 of 20 April 2026 and G.O.Ms.No.161 of 27 December 2022.

Not verified by this guide directly: the full text of the government orders and notifications, which were not re-opened here; the certificate-date rule for any notification other than the SLPRB Constable one; negative marking for DSC and police papers; the number of questions in the Group-II screening test; and any statistic on how often each mistake occurs. Study-science sources describe group results and do not guarantee outcomes. Check the notification of your post before you act.