Most government recruitment guides describe a desk job in a secretariat or a field post in a revenue office. The Executive Officer Grade-III in the Andhra Pradesh Endowments Subordinate Service is different, because the post sits at the point where law, records, money and public worship meet. An Executive Officer looks after the administration of a temple or a charitable institution that is notified under a State Act, and the examination reflects that: one paper is the general studies and mental ability paper that every APPSC degree-level recruitment carries, and the other is a subject paper on Hindu philosophy and temple system that no other APPSC recruitment has. This guide explains the department, the post, the Act, the 2026 notification and a preparation plan, and it is written to be descriptive and neutral.
Status as on 7 October 2026 (source: APPSC portal, brief notification 23/2026 dated 15.09.2026). The application window is not yet open. The brief notification says online applications are invited through psc.ap.gov.in from 16/10/2026 to 05/11/2026 up to 11:59 P.M, and that the detailed notification, with the break-up of vacancies, age, community and other instructions, will be available on the Commission's website on or before 16/10/2026. When this guide was prepared the Recruitment Notifications page listed the brief notification only. Everything below that depends on the detailed notification is labelled, and the figures of the earlier 2025 cycle are shown only as a guide to what the 2026 text is likely to resemble. Check the latest notification before you apply.
For the other APPSC notifications of the same date, see the Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026 guide and the AP government jobs calendar 2026.
1. The notification at a glance
The brief notification gives a small set of firm facts and defers the rest. It is worth separating what is already fixed from what will come later, because aspirants often plan around age or fee figures that belong to a previous cycle.
| Item | What the 2026 brief notification says |
|---|---|
| Notification | No. 23/2026, dated 15/09/2026, direct recruitment, General Recruitment |
| Post | Executive Officer Grade-III in A.P. Endowments Subordinate Service |
| Provisional vacancies | 104, subject to variation on confirmation from the department |
| Scale of pay | Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910 |
| Application window | 16/10/2026 to 05/11/2026, up to 11:59 P.M, online only |
| Qualification | A Bachelor's Degree from a University in India established by a Central, State or Provincial Act, an institution recognised by the UGC, or an equivalent qualification, as on the date of the detailed notification |
| Examination | Single-level examination, no screening test, online (CBRT) mode, normalisation if conducted in several sessions |
| Detailed notification | On or before 16/10/2026; its date is the crucial date for all purposes |
Two points deserve emphasis. First, "provisional vacancies" means the figure can change; the Commission says so in the text itself. Second, the date of the detailed notification is the crucial date, so the degree must be in hand by that date, and age is likely to be counted from a date the detailed notification will specify.
2. What the Endowments Department is
The Endowments Department administers Hindu religious and charitable institutions and endowments in the State. District pages of the Government of Andhra Pradesh describe its job in plain terms: to see that the income of these institutions is properly used for the purposes for which they were founded, and to protect their properties. The department is headed by a Commissioner, and the legal basis is the Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987.
Below the Commissioner the line of administration runs through officers named in the Act and its amendments, including Additional Commissioners, Regional Joint Commissioners, Deputy Commissioners and Assistant Commissioners, with district-level offices that supervise the institutions in the district. The Executive Officers are the people who actually run the day-to-day administration of the individual institutions. A district Endowments office may supervise hundreds of institutions, but most of them are small and have no property to speak of, so the officer cadre is concentrated on the institutions with meaningful income.
One consequence of this design is that the work depends on records. A temple has accounts, inventories of jewels and valuables, lease agreements for land and shops, festival expenditure and pending legal proceedings. A candidate who understands that the Executive Officer is essentially an accountable custodian and administrator will find the syllabus much easier to organise, because Paper II is largely about the institution's setting (rituals, texts, festivals) and its legal and financial framework (Sections 29, 57 and 75 to 86).
3. The Endowments Act, 1987: what to know for the exam
The Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987 is Act No. 30 of 1987. The notification itself cites it as "Act No.30 of 1987" and refers to sections of it by number. The India Code listing gives its enactment date as 13 May 1987, as reported by a search result; the India Code page itself did not load when this guide was prepared, so treat the date as a cross-check item.
The notification names three parts of the Act in the Paper II syllabus, and a candidate should learn these three well.
- Section 29, duties of Executive Officers. Item 11 of Paper II reads "Duties of Executive Officers of Endowment Institutions (Section 29 of Endowments Act, 30/87)".
- Section 57, allocation of funds. Item 10 reads "Sources of Income for Temples and Charitable Institutions. Allocation of funds of Endowment Institutions for different purposes (Section 57 of Endowments Act, 30/87)". Section 57 is the provision about the budget of an institution, and the 2007 amending Act changed its clauses, including a provision for payment to a common good fund where annual income exceeds a stated amount.
- Sections 75 to 86, endowment lands. Item 12 reads "Law relating to Endowments Lands, [ROR Act (Record of Rights in Land and Pattadar Pass Book Act) & Sections 75 to 86 of Endowments Act 30/87)]".
The Act has been amended more than once. The Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments (Amendment) Act, 2007 (Act No. 33 of 2007, dated 14 December 2007) substituted Section 29 and amended many other sections, among them 2, 6, 15, 17, 24, 28, 34 to 37, 45, 51 to 55, 57, 58, 65, 70 and 82 to 85. The 2025 notification of the Commission itself cites "section 29(3) of Amendment Act No.33 of 2007", which tells you the 2007 text is what the Commission relies on. As on October 2026 this guide has not checked whether any later amendment altered these provisions, so always read the notification and, if in doubt, the consolidated text on India Code.
4. What an Executive Officer does: Section 29
The text of Section 29 as substituted in 2007 is the best single source for the duties question, and the syllabus asks for it directly. In summary:
- Appointment. There is an Executive Officer for every charitable or religious institution or endowment. The Government appoints where the institution's income is Rs 1 crore and above, and the Commissioner appoints for the other institutions in the lists published under clauses (a) and (b) of Section 6. For institutions in the list under clause (c) of Section 6 with income below Rs 2 lakh a year, an Executive Officer need not be appointed.
- Where there is no Executive Officer. For an institution with income above Rs 2 lakh but below Rs 25 lakh, the trustee, the chairman of the board of trustees or an employee authorised by the Commissioner exercises the Executive Officer's functions. The Commissioner may still appoint an Executive Officer below Rs 2 lakh where there are substantial immovable properties or where better administration needs it, and may group several institutions under one Executive Officer.
- Grades. The number of Executive Officers in each grade is prescribed by the Government, and the Commissioner is the appointing authority for Grades I, II and III. The Act reserves 40 percent of Grade-III vacancies, and 20 percent in the other two grades, for employees of institutions or endowments of the prescribed grade. The Government may appoint a Regional Joint Commissioner as Executive Officer to an institution, and the Commissioner may appoint a Deputy or Assistant Commissioner.
- Responsibilities. Subject to restrictions the Government may impose, the Executive Officer is responsible for proper maintenance and custody of records, accounts and other documents, and of jewels, valuables, money, funds and other properties; arranges proper collection of income and incurring of expenditure; sues and is sued in the name of the institution; deposits money in the bank or treasury prescribed and signs orders or cheques; and has emergency power to direct work provided in the budget, or work needed to preserve property or for the safety of pilgrims, with immediate report to the trustee. The Executive Officer carries out lawful directions of the trustee.
- A fixed-deposit safeguard. The proviso says the Executive Officer shall not encash the fixed deposit certificates of any scheme or specific endowment under any circumstances. Questions love provisos like this one.
- Prior approval for suits. The Executive Officer institutes legal proceedings in the institution's name with the prior approval of the trustee.
The text is a legal text. When you revise it, do not memorise sentences. Memorise the five heads of responsibility (records, income, litigation, deposits, emergencies) and the three exceptions (fixed deposits, trustee approval for suits, report of emergency action). With those, most multiple-choice questions on Section 29 can be solved by elimination.
The religion condition
Section 29(3), as inserted in 2007, says the Executive Officer shall be a person professing the Hindu religion and shall cease to exercise the powers and duties when he or she ceases to profess it. The 2025 notification of the Commission repeats this as an eligibility condition. This is a statutory condition of the post, not a preference of the Commission. Whether the 2026 detailed notification repeats it, and in what words, must be read from that notification when it is published. The point is stated here because it affects who may apply and because Section 29(3) is itself a likely exam question.
5. Post, grade and career: where Grade-III sits
Executive Officer Grade-III is the entry grade of the cadre. The brief notification places it in the "A.P. Endowments Subordinate Service" with a pay scale of Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910. A scale is a range, and what reaches the employee depends on allowances and deductions that the notification does not give. Do not use coaching-site estimates of take-home pay; treat only the scale as official.
The institutional pyramid helps you answer questions about posting. Larger institutions with income above Rs 1 crore have Executive Officers appointed by the Government. The smaller ones, where the Commissioner appoints, are often staffed by Grade-III officers, sometimes with a group of institutions under one officer. The 2007 amendment's reservation of 40 percent of Grade-III posts for existing institutional employees means that direct recruitment through the Commission is only one of the routes into the grade; the 2026 vacancy count of 104 is the number the Commission is filling directly.
Promotion and transfer rules belong to the service rules and are not in the notification. This guide does not state them. If a question on promotions appears, the safe preparation is the Act itself and the service rules, which a candidate who joins will study in training.
6. Vacancies and the earlier cycle
The 2026 notification offers 104 provisional vacancies. The earlier cycle, Notification No. 10/2025 dated 12/08/2025, offered 7 carried-forward vacancies in the same scale of pay. The two numbers are not comparable in what they represent: the 2025 figure was only backlog vacancies, whereas the 2026 figure is described as General Recruitment, and the break-up (by category, women, local area, disability) will be given in the detailed notification.
The 2025 cycle is useful for understanding the process, because it ran from notification to selection list within a year. As recorded on the Commission's portal:
| Stage | 2025 cycle (Notification 10/2025) |
|---|---|
| Notification | 12/08/2025 |
| Application window | 13/08/2025 to 02/09/2025, up to 11:00 PM |
| Written examination | OMR-based, held 11/02/2026 (forenoon and afternoon) |
| Original certificate verification | 25/05/2026, Vijayawada |
| Provisional selection list | Web note dated 16.06.2026 |
| Marks of selected candidates | Published July 2026 |
Note the difference in mode. The 2025 examination was offline (OMR). The 2026 brief notification says the examination will be online (CBRT). Preparation for a computer-based test differs in small but real ways: you cannot underline or write on the question paper, so rough work must be done on the sheet the centre provides, and time management is on screen.
7. Eligibility: education, age, local status
Education. The 2026 brief notification asks for a Bachelor's Degree from a University in India established or incorporated under a Central, State or Provincial Act, or from an institution recognised by the University Grants Commission, or an equivalent qualification. No stream is specified, so arts, science, commerce, law and engineering graduates may all meet the requirement. For a qualification claimed as equivalent, the 2025 notification said the department's decision is final and asked candidates to send the relevant Government Order within a stated number of days after the last date.
Age (2025 cycle, for guidance only). The 2025 notification fixed minimum 18 and maximum 42 years as on 01/07/2025. It allowed relaxation of 5 years for SC, ST, BC and EWS candidates, 10 years for persons with benchmark disabilities, a deduction of service plus 3 years for ex-servicemen, a deduction of up to 5 years for regular State Government employees, and 3 years for certain retrenched temporary census employees. The 2026 brief notification does not state age at all. Read the detailed notification. The upper limit of 42 in 2025 cited a Government Order of March 2025, and a time-limited relaxation may or may not continue; do not assume.
Citizenship, health and character. The 2025 notification listed the standard conditions: citizen of India, sound health, and character and antecedents suitable for the service. Candidates other than citizens of India may be appointed only with State Government sanction in limited circumstances.
Local status. AP Government posts follow the Presidential Order of 1975 (Article 371-D) for local reservation, and the 2025 notification explained local candidature through four years of study or residence. A candidate who has studied in Andhra Pradesh should keep the study certificates for classes 4 to 10, or the residence certificate, ready. Candidates from other States are not entitled to local reservation or to community reservation in this notification family.
Computer Proficiency Test. The brief notification annexes the scheme of the CPT, described below, as part of the process.
8. Fee (earlier cycle) and how to apply
The 2025 notification asked for an application processing fee of Rs 250 and an examination fee of Rs 80. Candidates from SC, ST, BC, persons with benchmark disabilities and ex-servicemen, families holding a white ration card, and unemployed youth with the prescribed declaration were exempted from the Rs 80 examination fee only. Candidates from other States paid both. The fee was non-refundable. The 2026 detailed notification will state the fee for this cycle; check it rather than assuming the 2025 amounts.
To apply, a candidate needs One Time Profile Registration. The OTPR is not an application for any post; it is a profile that stores your bio-data and then pre-fills the application. For the full step-by-step process see the APPSC OTR registration guide. The sensible order is to register or update the profile now, keep the mobile number and email on the profile active for OTP, and file the application well before the last date. The Commission's own advice in the notification is the same: apply well in advance to avoid last-minute rush.
9. Scheme of the examination
The scheme is given in the annexure to the brief notification as "Annexure-V of G.O.Ms.No.201, Finance (HR-I Plg, & Policy) Dept., Dt: 21/12/2017".
| Paper | Subject | Questions | Minutes | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper I | General Studies and Mental Ability | 150 | 150 | 150 |
| Paper II | Hindu Philosophy and Temple System | 150 | 150 | 150 |
| Total | 300 | 300 |
Each wrong answer is penalised by one third of the marks prescribed for the question, as per G.O.Ms.No.235 of 06/12/2016. The notification says the examination will be single-level, with no screening test irrespective of the number of applications, in CBRT mode. If it is held in more than one session, the Commission will adopt a process of normalisation of marks where it considers it necessary, and the details will be notified later.
The 2025 notification explained the rest of the selection logic, and the Commission has used the same structure for years. Appearance in all papers is compulsory, since absence from any paper disqualifies. Selection is on merit in the written examination followed by the Computer Proficiency Test. The minimum qualifying marks on aggregate in the 2025 notification were 40 percent for Open Competition, ex-servicemen and EWS, 35 percent for Backward Classes and 30 percent for SC, ST and persons with benchmark disabilities, with the reminder that securing the minimum does not give a right to selection. The 2026 detailed notification will repeat or change these; the brief notification does not state them.
For negative marking and time management in a 150-question paper, the negative marking and time management strategy post works through the arithmetic. For the normalisation issue, see the percentile and normalisation explainer.
10. Computer Proficiency Test
The CPT is a practical test of 60 minutes and 100 marks under G.O.Ms.No.26, G.A. (Ser.B) Department, dated 24.02.2023. The minimum qualifying marks printed in the annexure are 30 for SC, ST and persons with benchmark disabilities, 35 for Backward Classes and 40 for Open Competition. Part A, 20 percent of the marks, is MCQ-based and covers introduction to computers, software types, operating systems, Windows, basic Linux and Mac concepts, the Internet, email and the World Wide Web. Part B tests word processing (including typing speed, 25 percent), organising and inserting objects (15 percent), a spreadsheet exercise with formatting, formulas, conditional formatting and graphs (20 percent), and a presentation exercise (20 percent).
The CPT is not a formality. The 2025 notification said no candidate is eligible for appointment unless the CPT is qualified. Candidates who are strong in the written tests but never type on a keyboard are the ones most likely to be surprised. Practise a typing passage daily and build one spreadsheet and one presentation from scratch every week.
11. Paper I: General Studies and Mental Ability
Paper I is the standard APPSC degree-level general paper, and its ten items are printed in the notification: major current events and issues (international, national and Andhra Pradesh); general science and its applications, with science and technology and IT; history of India with focus on Andhra Pradesh and the national movement; geography of India with focus on Andhra Pradesh; Indian polity and governance; Indian economy and planning; sustainable development and environmental protection; disaster management, including remote sensing and GIS; logical reasoning and analytical ability; and data analysis, which the notification describes as tabulation, visual representation and basic summary statistics such as mean, median, mode and variance.
Because 150 marks come from a paper you can share with other APPSC aspirants, the value of Paper I lies in speed. It is an area where a Telugu-medium or English-medium candidate who has prepared for Group-II or other degree-level posts already has an advantage. These pages of ours cover the building blocks: Indian polity and Constitution notes, AP polity and Panchayati Raj notes, Indian history notes, Indian economy basics, AP economy and budget notes, AP government schemes notes and reasoning and arithmetic shortcuts.
For this particular post, the Andhra Pradesh emphasis connects to Paper II. Temple history, the major temples of the State and the heritage circuit are natural overlaps, and the AP tourism, temples and heritage sites notes are useful as a general reference for both papers.
The data analysis item
Item 10 is where many candidates lose easy marks. The notification lists mean, median, mode and variance. A short worked example makes the point. Take ten daily footfall counts at a temple counter: 12, 15, 11, 18, 15, 20, 14, 15, 17, 13. The sum is 150, so the mean is 15. Sorted, they are 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 15, 15, 17, 18, 20; the median is the average of the fifth and sixth values, which is 15, and the mode is 15 because it occurs three times. The squared deviations from the mean add up to 68, so the population variance is 6.8 and its square root, the standard deviation, is about 2.61. The sample variance, dividing by 9 instead of 10, is about 7.56. Exam questions normally say whether they mean population or sample; if they do not, ask what the question gives you and read the options.
12. Paper II: Hindu Philosophy and Temple System, topic by topic
Paper II is a subject paper of 150 questions, and its twelve items are listed in the annexure. A good way to study is to group them into four blocks.
Block A: the epics and Puranas (items 1 to 4). For the Ramayana the notification asks for the characters, the parts (kandas), the dynasties and the places. The seven kandas are Bala, Ayodhya, Aranya, Kishkindha, Sundara, Yuddha and Uttara, according to a standard reference summary. For the Mahabharata it asks for characters, the parts (parvas), dynasties and places; the epic is divided into 18 parvans, with a supplement called the Harivamsha. For the Bhagavatham it asks for characters, the skandhams and places, and for the Puranas, a basic knowledge of the various Puranas and places. Study by building a table of each epic's divisions and the main event of each, then a second table of places and what happened there.
Block B: the Agamas and rituals (items 5 to 7). The notification lists the Vaishnava Agamas (Vaikhanasa, Pancharatra, Chattada Srivaishnava), the Shaiva ones (Smarta, Adi Saiva, Veera Saiva, Jangama, Kapalika and others) and the Shakta tradition in connection with Mother Goddesses; Hindu festivals celebrated in different parts of India; classical fine arts of Indian origin; Vedic culture including yagnas and yagams, the Vedas, Upavedas, Upanishads and the dharmas of the stages of life. Temples in Andhra Pradesh follow different Agama traditions, and a question may ask which Agama a given temple follows. Tie each tradition to a few well-known temples from your standard reference.
Block C: philosophies and teachers (item 8). The notification names the Alvars (Vaishnava saints), the Nayanars (Shaiva saints), Shankaracharya (Advaita), Ramanujacharya (Vishishtadvaita), Madhwacharya and Basava (Veera Saiva). A reference source describes 12 Tamil Alvars, with Kotai (Andal) the only woman among them, and 63 Nayanars. Note that the notification text pairs Madhwacharya with the word "Dvaithadvaitham". Standard references on Indian philosophy describe Madhva's school as Dvaita (dualism), and place Dvaitadvaita (difference and non-difference) with Nimbarka. If a question appears in the notification's wording, think about what the answer key is likely to say, answer on the basis of the standard texts, and remember that the Commission invites objections to the provisional key. Do not guess which one the key will accept; use your marks wisely.
Block D: society, money and land (items 9 to 12). Item 9 is family structure in Hindu society, adoption and succession. Items 10, 11 and 12 are the Act-based items covered in sections 3 and 4 above. These three items, with Section 29, Section 57 and Sections 75 to 86 plus the Record of Rights Act, are a compact, high-value area because the questions are factual and the sources are legal texts. Candidates who read the Act itself, and not summaries, have a clear advantage here.
13. A ten-week preparation plan
Ten weeks is a reasonable plan for a graduate who has not prepared before. The plan below adapts if the exam is called earlier or later; the dates are not announced.
| Weeks | Focus | Output |
|---|---|---|
| 1 to 2 | Read the notification and syllabus, set up OTPR, read Sections 29, 57, 75 to 86 of the Act | One-page summary of each section |
| 3 to 4 | Paper II Blocks A and B | Epic division tables, Agama table, festival list |
| 5 | Paper II Blocks C and D | Teacher and school table, family and succession notes |
| 6 to 7 | Paper I: polity, history, geography, economy | Chapter tests, AP-specific notes |
| 8 | Paper I: science, environment, disaster management, data analysis, reasoning | Timed sets of 50 |
| 9 | CPT practice: typing, document, spreadsheet, presentation | Weekly practice file |
| 10 | Full mocks of both papers, error log | Revision list |
Within each week, spend the first half on learning and the second on testing, and keep an error log. For Paper II, it helps to write the answer to each fact twice: once as it appears in the standard book and once in the form the notification words it.
14. Exam traps and how to avoid them
- Mixing up the paper. Paper I is common; Paper II is the only one of its kind. Do not neglect Paper II because it looks "easy" to those familiar with the tradition, and do not neglect Paper I because Paper II looks distinctive. Each is 150 marks.
- Treating the Act as a story. Provisos and thresholds are tested. The Rs 1 crore Government appointment threshold and the Rs 2 lakh no-appointment threshold in Section 29 are easy to swap.
- Using 2025 figures as 2026 facts. The age 18 to 42 and the fee of Rs 250 plus Rs 80 are from the earlier cycle.
- Ignoring the CPT. A test with its own cut-off marks, 30, 35 and 40, can end a candidature after a good written score.
- Assuming the mode. The 2025 cycle used OMR; the 2026 notification says online. Practise on screen.
- Following unverified social media. The Commission asks candidates not to rely on unverified information about notifications and schedules, and to use only the official website.
Key facts for exams
- Notification 23/2026 dated 15/09/2026 is a brief notification for Executive Officer Grade-III, A.P. Endowments Subordinate Service, General Recruitment.
- 104 provisional vacancies; pay scale Rs 25,220 to Rs 80,910; window 16/10/2026 to 05/11/2026, 11:59 P.M.
- Single-level examination, no screening test, CBRT mode, normalisation if multiple sessions.
- Paper I: General Studies and Mental Ability, 150 questions, 150 minutes, 150 marks. Paper II: Hindu Philosophy and Temple System, same numbers. Total 300.
- Negative marking: one third of the marks for each wrong answer (G.O.Ms.No.235 of 06/12/2016).
- CPT: practical, 60 minutes, 100 marks; qualifying marks 30, 35 and 40 for the three groups.
- Act: AP Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act 1987 (Act 30 of 1987); Amendment Act 33 of 2007 substituted Section 29.
- Syllabus items name Section 29 (duties), Section 57 (allocation of funds) and Sections 75 to 86 (lands).
- Earlier cycle: Notification 10/2025 of 12/08/2025, 7 carried-forward vacancies, OMR examination on 11/02/2026.
Ten practice MCQs
1. The Act that governs the administration of Hindu religious and charitable institutions in Andhra Pradesh and is named in the syllabus is: (a) Act 30 of 1987 (b) Act 33 of 2007 (c) Act 6 of 2014 (d) Act 1 of 1950 Answer: (a). Act 33 of 2007 is the amending Act.
2. Which section of the Act deals with the appointment and duties of the Executive Officer? (a) Section 6 (b) Section 29 (c) Section 57 (d) Section 86 Answer: (b).
3. As per Section 29 as substituted in 2007, who appoints the Executive Officer for an institution with annual income of Rs 1 crore and above? (a) The trustee (b) The Commissioner (c) The Government (d) The District Collector Answer: (c).
4. In the notification, the number of questions in Paper II is: (a) 100 (b) 120 (c) 150 (d) 200 Answer: (c), with 150 minutes and 150 marks.
5. A candidate answers 120 questions in Paper I of which 96 are correct. Using the one-third penalty, the raw score is: (a) 96 (b) 90 (c) 88 (d) 80 Answer: (c). 24 wrong answers cost 8 marks, so 96 minus 8 equals 88.
6. The Ramayana is divided into how many kandas? (a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Eight Answer: (c).
7. The Mahabharata is divided into how many main parvas, according to standard reference summaries? (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 100 Answer: (b).
8. The Alvars are traditionally associated with the worship of: (a) Vishnu (b) Shiva (c) Surya (d) Skanda Answer: (a). The Nayanars are the Shaiva counterpart.
9. For the data set 12, 15, 11, 18, 15, 20, 14, 15, 17, 13, the median is: (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 Answer: (b), the average of the fifth and sixth sorted values, 15 and 15.
10. Under the CPT annexure, the maximum marks and duration of the test are: (a) 50 marks, 30 minutes (b) 100 marks, 60 minutes (c) 150 marks, 90 minutes (d) 200 marks, 120 minutes Answer: (b).
Frequently asked questions
Has the application window opened? As on 7 October 2026, no. The brief notification fixes 16/10/2026 to 05/11/2026 and says the detailed notification will be on psc.ap.gov.in on or before 16/10/2026.
What is the qualification? A Bachelor's Degree from a recognised university or an equivalent qualification, as on the date of the detailed notification. No stream is specified in the brief notification.
What is the age limit? The brief notification does not state it. The 2025 cycle fixed 18 to 42 years as on 01/07/2025 with listed relaxations. Check the 2026 detailed notification.
Is there a screening test? No. The notification says there will be a single-level examination and no screening test irrespective of the number of applications.
What is the exam mode? Online (CBRT). The 2025 cycle was offline OMR, so do not assume the earlier pattern.
Is there a religion condition for this post? Section 29(3) of the Act, as inserted in 2007, requires the Executive Officer to be a person professing the Hindu religion, and the 2025 notification applied this to applicants. Read the 2026 detailed notification for the wording of the eligibility condition.
Is there a Computer Proficiency Test? Yes. The scheme is annexed to the notification: 100 marks, 60 minutes, practical, with separate qualifying marks.
How many vacancies are there? 104 provisional, subject to change on confirmation from the department.
Related reading
- Andhra Pradesh government exams 2026 guide
- AP government jobs calendar 2026
- APPSC OTR registration guide
- APPSC Group-1, 2, 3 and 4 compared
- APPSC Group-2 guide
- APPSC Section Officer: what the commission recruits
- APPSC Treasuries and Accounts posts
- AP tourism, temples and heritage sites notes
- Andhra Pradesh hub
- Telugu version: APPSC ఎగ్జిక్యూటివ్ ఆఫీసర్ గ్రేడ్-III (దేవాదాయ శాఖ)
When you are ready to test yourself, you can practise timed mock tests for APPSC exams on pareeksha.in, which offers 10 Lakh+ MCQs, 100+ Exams and 5,000+ Full-Length Mocks, and review your errors after each one.
Sources and verification
Official pages opened for this guide (as on 7 October 2026):
- APPSC portal home page and Recruitment Notifications page, portal-psc.ap.gov.in and psc.ap.gov.in, including the list of notifications and web notes
- APPSC Brief Notification No.23/2026 dated 15.09.2026, Executive Officer Grade-III in A.P. Endowments Subordinate Service, with the scheme, syllabus and Computer Proficiency Test annexure
- APPSC Web Note of 15.09.2026 on brief notifications 07/2026 to 26/2026
- APPSC Notification No.10/2025 dated 12.08.2025, Executive Officer Grade-III, for the earlier cycle's age, fee, reservation, scheme and selection rules
- APPSC web notes of 15.05.2026, 16.06.2026 and 03.07.2026 on the 10/2025 recruitment
- Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments (Amendment) Act, 2007 (Act No.33 of 2007), text as hosted on a legal database, for Section 29 as substituted and Section 57 amendments
- Government of Andhra Pradesh district website pages on the Endowments Department
Reference summaries seen in search results but not opened as full pages: Britannica entries on the Ramayana, Mahabharata, the Alvars and Nayanars, and Vedanta schools (the site blocked direct fetching).
Not verified: the India Code consolidated text of Act 30 of 1987, which did not load, so the enactment date, the current text of Sections 57 and 75 to 86 and any amendments after 2007 are unchecked; age, fee, minimum qualifying marks and reservation break-up for the 2026 cycle, which depend on the detailed notification not yet published; the Bhagavatham skandha count and the Agama-to-temple mapping, which come from standard reference knowledge and should be checked against your textbook; promotion rules and take-home pay. Check the latest notification before you apply.
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